Findings Of Fact Based upon the record evidence, the following Findings of Fact are made: Petitioner sat for the optometry licensure examination administered by the State of Florida in September, 1989. The examination included a clinical portion, consisting of three components: Section 1; Section 2; and a refraction exercise. The maximum number of points Petitioner could have earned on each these three parts of the examination was as follows: Section 1- 28 points; Section 2- 52 points; and refraction exercise- 20 points. Petitioner needed a combined total of 80 points on these three parts of the examination to pass the clinical portion of the examination. He received a combined total of 78 points: 28 points for Section 1; 30 points for Section 2; and 20 points for the refraction exercise. On Section 2 of the clinical portion of the examination, Petitioner was required to perform the following 15 routine optometric procedures, with each procedure worth the number of points indicated: Demonstrate equator- 5 points; Demonstrate posterior pole- 5 points; Scan vessel- 5 points; Demonstrate a parallelpiped focusing on the endothelium- 4 points; Estimate anterior chamber depth- 2 points; Demonstrate technique to determine cell and flare- 2 points; Demonstrate optic section of crystalline lens- 2 points; Demonstrate crystalline lens retroillumination- 2 points; Demonstrate anterior vitreous- 4 points; Focus on optic disc and estimate C/D ratio- 2 points; Demonstrate AV crossing and estimate AV ratio- 3 points; Determine foveal reflex- 3 points; Demonstrate accurate measurement of intraocular pressure- 5 points; Demonstrate nasal angle and describe structures- 4 points; and Estimate pigment deposition- 4 points. Petitioner's attempted performance of these routine procedures was independently observed 1/ and graded, on a pass/fail basis, by two qualified examiners, each of whom had been given detailed instructions regarding their responsibilities prior to the administration of the examination. The examiners had been instructed to use a standard of minimal competency in deciding whether to give a candidate a passing or failing grade. Their determination as to whether Petitioner had met this standard with respect to a particular procedure was necessarily a subjective process which required them to exercise their professional judgment. Petitioner received full credit for a procedure if both examiners gave him a passing grade (P). He received no credit for a procedure if both examiners gave him a failing grade (F). Where one examiner gave him a passing grade and the other examiner gave him a failing grade, Petitioner received half credit for the procedure. The following are the individual grades that were given Petitioner for each of the 15 procedures he attempted to perform: Examiner 40 Examiner 54 Procedure 1 F F Procedure 2 P P Procedure 3 F F Procedure 4 P F Procedure 5 P P Procedure 6 P F Procedure 7 P P Procedure 8 F F Procedure 9 P P Procedure 10 P P Procedure 11 P P Procedure 12 P P Procedure 13 F F Procedure 14 F P Procedure 15 P P As they had been instructed to do, if they gave Petitioner a failing grade or a borderline passing grade, Examiners 40 and 54 provided written comments regarding the grade on the grade sheets they filled out. The passing grades that, in the view of the Examiner 40, warranted such comments were those given for Procedures 6, 10 and 15. Examiner 54 believed that the passing grades he gave for Procedures 2, 7, 11 and 14 deserved such comments. With respect to the failing grade he gave Petitioner for Procedure 1, Examiner 40 commented on his grade sheet, "never got view." Examiner 54's comment for this procedure was, "very poor focus." Petitioner was initially provided with a binocular instrument that, due to his inability to fuse, he was unable to use to perform Procedure 1. He so advised the two examiners, who obtained another instrument for him to use. After testing the instrument, Petitioner was asked by the examiners if it was better. Petitioner responded in the affirmative, but indicated to them that it still was not ideal. He thereafter attempted to perform the procedure and asked the examiners to grade him. Procedure 4 is performed with a slit lamp. When the candidate has performed the procedure and he is ready to be graded, he so informs the first examiner, who thereupon looks through the oculars to ascertain whether the candidate has demonstrated a parallelpiped focusing on the endothelium of the cornea of the patient's eye. After the first examiner has completed his evaluation and the candidate indicates that he is ready to be graded again, the second examiner takes the oculars to make his determination as to whether the candidate has properly performed the procedure. The candidate is responsible for holding the focus throughout the procedure. If he does not hold the focus, one examiner may see a properly performed parallelpiped, while the other may not and therefore justifiably give the candidate a failing grade. As noted above, Petitioner received a passing grade from Examiner 40 and a failing grade from Examiner 54 for Procedure 4. The comment, "specular reflection,'1 appears on Examiner 54's grade sheet next to the failing grade he gave for this procedure. This comment suggests that, unlike Examiner 40, Examiner 54 was unable to observe a parallelpiped focused on the endothelium because the reflection of light off the cornea interfered with his view. Apparently, during the time between the examiners' observations, there had been a change in focus that resulted in Examiner 40 seeing one thing and Examiner 54 seeing another. In giving Petitioner a failing grade for Procedure 14, Examiner 40 commented on his grade sheet, "never got stable view." Examiner 54, while he gave Petitioner a passing grade for this procedure, made the comment on his grade sheet regarding this procedure that Petitioner achieved a "very borderline focus." Furthermore, Examiner 54's grade was based upon an observation that was not made at the same time as the observation upon which Examiner 40's grade was based.
Recommendation Based upon the foregoing Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law, it is hereby RECOMMENDED that the Board of Optometry reject Petitioner's challenge to the failing score he received on the clinical portion of Part II of the September, 1989 optometry licensure examination. DONE AND ENTERED in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida, this 24th day of August, 1990. STUART M. LERNER Hearing Officer Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-1550 (904) 488-9675 Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 24th day of August, 1990.
The Issue Whether Petitioner is entitled to credit for her response to Question 36 or for her response to Question 41 of the X-ray interpretation portion of the Chiropractic Licensure Examination administered in November 2000.
Findings Of Fact Pursuant to Chapter 456, Florida Statutes, Respondent is the agency of the State of Florida that develops, administers, scores, and reports scores for licensure examinations, such as the examination at issue in this proceeding. The Board of Chiropractic Medicine is created as a part of Respondent by Section 460.404(1), Florida Statutes. Pursuant to Section 456.013(4), Florida Statutes, this Recommended Order is to be forwarded to the Board of Chiropractic Medicine, which will enter a Final Order. Section 460.406(1), Florida Statutes, provides that anyone seeking licensure as a chiropractic physician must pass a licensure examination. The Florida Chiropractic Medicine Licensure Examination consists of two portions: (a) a practical examination and (b) a Florida Laws and Rules examination. The practical examination is further subdivided into three areas: (a) interpretation of chiropractic and pathology films (the X-ray portion), (b) physical diagnosis, and (c) technique. A candidate cannot be licensed as a chiropractic physician until he or she has passed all portions of the licensure examination, including the X-ray portion. The X-ray portion consists of 60 multiple-choice questions, with each question having four possible answers. A chiropractic or pathology film is displayed for each question. The candidates are instructed to select from four possible answers the best answer to the written question pertaining to the accompanying film. The candidates are given 90 seconds to answer each question. The X-ray portion of the examination tests minimal competency and does not provide the candidates a certification or specialty in the field of radiology. Petitioner received a failing score on the X-ray portion of the examination. A candidate must correctly answer 45 of the 60 scores to pass. Petitioner received credit for correctly answering 44 questions. If Petitioner is awarded credit for correctly answering Question 36 or Question 41, she will be entitled to a passing score on the X-ray portion of the examination as well as the over-all examination. The written portion of Question 36 described certain symptoms being experienced by a 60-year-old female. The X-ray depicted a patient whose trachea was deviated to the left of its usual position. Candidates were asked to select the answer that best responded to the question "what is your impression of the radiograph." The parties agree that two of the four answers were incorrect. The other two answers will be referred to as Answer A and Answer B. Answer A, the answer Respondent considered the correct answer, was that the radiograph showed the trachea was deviated to the left of its usual position. Answer B, the answer selected by Petitioner, is a possible reason the trachea was deviated to the left. Petitioner agrees that the radiograph showed that the trachea was deviated to the left, but argues that because the question asks for the candidate's impression, she should attempt to answer why the body part was deviated. 2/ The written portion of the question and the radiograph do not provide sufficient information for a candidate to determine that Answer B was the reason the trachea was deviated to the left. Additional testing would be required before a practitioner could reach a correct diagnosis for the cause of the deviation. Answer A was the best answer to Question 36. Petitioner should not be awarded credit for her answer to Question 36 because her answer was not the best answer to the question. The written portion of Question 41 advised that the candidate's examination of a patient did not find a reason for the patient's mild back pain. The candidate was required to select the best answer to the question "[w]hat does the X-ray disclose." The greater weight of the credible evidence established that the only correct answer was the answer selected by Respondent as being the correct answer. Petitioner concedes that the X-ray disclosed what Respondent asserted was the correct answer, but chose another answer because Respondent's answer would not account for the patient's pain. Petitioner chose the answer that the X-ray disclosed a bilateral fracture. There was a dispute among the experts as to whether the X-ray contained jagged lines, which would indicate a fracture. Respondent's expert testified that there were no significant jagged areas. Dr. Stern testified that there may be some jagged areas, but that further testing would be necessary to reveal a fracture. Dr. Richard Santo testified that there were jagged areas that disclosed a severe fracture. The conflicting evidence is resolved by finding that the X-ray did not clearly disclose an area that had been fractured and did not disclose a bilateral fracture. Petitioner should not be awarded credit for her answer to Question 41 because her answer was not the best answer to the question. Respondent's psychometrician evaluated the responses to Question 36 and Question 41, and found that both questions performed at an acceptable level. For Question 36, 77% of the candidates who took the examination with Petitioner chose Respondent's correct answer, while 17% of the candidates choose Petitioner's answer. For Question 41, 74% of the candidates chose Respondent's answer, and 24% chose Petitioner's answer.
Recommendation Based on the foregoing Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law, it is RECOMMENDED that the Board of Chiropractic Medicine enter a final order denying Petitioner additional credit for her responses to Questions 36 and 41 of the X-ray portion of the Chiropractic Licensure Examination administered in November 2000. DONE AND ENTERED this 11th day of October, 2001, in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida. CLAUDE B. ARRINGTON Administrative Law Judge Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-3060 (850) 488-9675 SUNCOM 278-9675 Fax Filing (850) 921-6847 www.doah.state.fl.us Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 11th day of October, 2001.
The Issue Validity of Respondent's policy that applicants to retake the examination administered for licensure as an optometrist must have passed all portions of the national board examination within five years prior to the filing of the application. This rule challenge arises under Section 120.56, Florida Statutes. It was consolidated for purposes of hearing with another case involving the same parties, DOAH Case No. 84-2647, wherein Petitioner is seeking to have his application to retake part of the state examination for optometrists approved. In that case, the Petitioner has provisionally denied his request based on the policy being challenged as a rule in this proceeding. At the hearing, Petitioner testified in his own behalf and called Mildred Gardner, Executive Director of the Board of Optometry, as a witness. Petitioner submitted 12 exhibits in evidence and the Respondent submitted one exhibit. The parties have submitted posthearing findings of fact pursuant to Section 120.57(1)(b)4, Florida Statutes. A ruling on each proposed finding of fact has been made either directly or indirectly in this Recommended Order, except where such proposed findings of fact have been rejected as subordinate, cumulative, immaterial, or unnecessary.
Findings Of Fact Petitioner Samuel Scardino is an optometrist who is currently licensed as such in the states of California, Illinois, Kentucky, and Michigan. He graduated from the Illinois College of Optometry in 1978, and successfully passed all parts of the National Board of Optometry examination in the same year. He has been a practicing optometrist in Battle Creek, Michigan, since 1978. (Testimony of Petitioner, Petitioner's Exhibit 4) By application dated May 10, 1983, Petitioner applied to take the Florida optometry examination. His application was received by Respondent on May 13, 1983. Petitioner's application was approved pursuant to Respondent's Rule 21QER83-1 which amended Rule 21Q-4.01, Florida Administrative Code, on May 19, 1983, to provide that an applicant must have obtained a qualifying score on the national examination within five years prior or two years subsequent to the date of passage of the state examination. It also provided that a passing score of 75 must be obtained on the pharmacology section of the national examination in 1983, or subsequent thereto, within five years prior or two years subsequent to passage of the state examination. By letter of May 18, 1983, Respondent acknowledged receipt of Petitioner's application and $250.00 fee, but indicated that the application was incomplete in that a final transcript must be sent by his school, and also that the National Board report of passing grades within the past five years and the pharmacology section in 1983 with a score of 75 or above were required. Petitioner complied with these requirements and received an admission card for the optometry examination to be held in July of 1983. Petitioner took the examination at that time and received notice in September 1983 that he had failed the pharmacology/pathology portion of Part II of the examination with a grade of 61. A review of Petitioner's objections to the grade resulted in a further letter from Respondent, dated December 23, 1983, which advised Petitioner that the Board of Optometry review committee had reviewed the matter and changed his final grade for the pharmacology/pathology portion of the examination from 61 to 65, but that a final grade of 70 percent or better was required to achieve a passing status. He was thereupon advised of his right to a hearing under Section 120.57, Florida Statutes. (Testimony of Petitioner, Petitioner's Exhibit 1, 5-8, Respondent's Exhibit 1) On March 19, 1984, Petitioner filed an application for optometry reexamination with the Respondent, together with the $250.00 reexamination fee. The state application form for reexamination did not ask for any information concerning the National Board of Optometry examination, as did the original application form. Respondent's Rule 21Q-4.02, Florida Administrative Code, pertaining to reexamination, provided pertinently as follows: 21A-4.02 Reexamination.-- An applicant who fails either Part I or Part II of the state examination for licensure shall be required to retake only that part of the examination on which he failed to achieve a passing grade, provided that the applicant shall be limited to two retakes within a two year period from the date of original failure. If the applicant fails to achieve a passing grade as provided above, he shall be required to take the complete state examination for licensure in order to be entitled to be licensed as an optometrist. Reexamination shall be conditioned on payment of the reexamination fee. Respondent advised Petitioner by an undated letter which he received on April 7, 1984, that his National Board scores were no longer valid to take the Florida examination since they had been obtained more than five years prior to his application to take the 1984 examination. The letter further stated that 1983 was his last year of eligibility for examination under his 1978 National Board scores and that he had not been successful in his 1983 Florida examination. The letter enclosed an application for refund of his $250.00 fee for the 1984 examination. Petitioner thereafter spoke with the Executive Director of the Board of Optometry who indicated that the card would be evaluating his and other questions of candidates at their May 4, 1984 meeting. (Testimony of Petitioner, Gardner, Petitioner's Exhibits 2, 9, 11) The minutes of a meeting of the Board of Optometry on May 3, 1984, contains the following item: Examination 1984 - After discussion with Board Counsel, the Board reiterated that Examination candidates must have passed all parts of the National Board within 5 years prior to application to take the Florida examination in order that all candidates who pass the Florida examination are immediately eligible to apply for licen sure. Any candidate who applies to retake the Florida examination must also meet the requirements of passing the National Board within 5 years of applying to retake the Florida examination. All requirements of 21Q-4.01 apply to all candidates and no waiver of requirements shall be granted. Motion by Dr. Walker, seconded by Mrs. Chambers. Passed unanimously. The Board's Executive Director advised Petitioner of the action taken by the Board in a letter of May 14, 1984. He was also informed by this letter that if he completed the National Board requirements prior to the 1985 examination and applied for such examination, he would be required only to take the practical portion of Part II of the Florida examination, but that if he were not licensed in 1985, he would be required to take the entire Florida examination. After receiving the letter, Petitioner submitted his application for refund of the $250.00 reexamination fee which was approved on April 4, 1984 and thereafter paid to Petitioner. By Petition dated June 19, 1984, Petitioner requested an administrative hearing to contest the Respondent's denial of his application to retake the Florida optometry examination which was scheduled for August 1984. The instant rule challenge was subsequently filed in September 1984. (Testimony of Petitioner, Gardner, Petitioner's Exhibit 10) The policy statement announced by the Board at its May 3, 1984, meeting that applicants for reexamination must have passed the National Board examination within a period of five years prior to such application was first applied in 1984 and was uniformly applied to all applicants for reexamination who had not taken the National Board examination within the requisite period prior to application. (Testimony of Gardner)
Findings Of Fact Petitioner took the podiatry licensure examination administered by the Respondent in July, 1989, receiving a grade of 66.9%, with 241 correct answers. A score of 75%, with 270 correct answers, is required to pass the examination for licensure. This podiatry examination was developed by the Bureau of Examination Services in conjunction with consultants who served as "item writers", and Florida licensed podiatrists. Five Florida licensed podiatrists selected items written by the various consultants from a bank of questions available for the 1989 examination. Competent substantial evidence was not introduced on behalf of the Petitioner to establish that the examination was in any way flawed in its preparation or method of selecting the actual questions used on this exam. There is a lack of competent substantial evidence in the record to establish that the grades which the Petitioner received on the July, 1989, podiatry licensure examination were incorrect, unfair, or invalid, or that the examination, and subsequent review session, were administered in an arbitrary or capricious manner.
Recommendation Based upon the foregoing, it is recommended that Respondent enter a Final Order dismissing the Petitioner's challenge to the grades he received on the July, 1989, podiatry licensure examination. RECOMMENDED this 7th day of May, 1991 in Tallahassee, Florida. DONALD D. CONN Hearing Officer Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-1550 Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 7th day of May, 1991. APPENDIX TO RECOMMENDED ORDER, CASE NO. 90-2803 Despite waiting an additional seven days until April 25, 1991, as requested by counsel for the Petitioner in his letter filed on April 19, 1991, no proposed recommended order was filed on behalf of the Petitioner. Rulings on the Respondent's Proposed Findings of Fact: Adopted in Finding 1. Adopted in Findings 2 and 3. COPIES FURNISHED: Melvyn G. Greenspahn, Esquire 3550 Biscayne Boulevard Suite 404 Miami, FL 33137 Vytas J. Urba, Esquire Northwood Centre, Suite 60 1940 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, FL 32399-0792 Jack McRay, Esquire Northwood Centre 1940 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, FL 32399-0792 Patricia Guilford Executive Director Board of Podiatry 1940 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, FL 32399-0792
The Issue The issue in this case is whether the Petitioner is entitled to a passing grade on the clinical portion of the August 2000 optometry licensure examination.
Findings Of Fact The Petitioner took the optometry licensure examination in August of 2000. He received passing scores on three of the four parts of the licensure examination. He received a failing score on the clinical portion of the examination. The Petitioner's score on the clinical portion of the subject examination was 70.50. The minimum passing score is 75.00. The Petitioner contested the scores awarded to him for his performance of procedures itemized on the examination as 2A, 7B, 10A, 22A, 33C, 9A, 18B, and 14B.3 During the course of the hearing, two of the challenged items were resolved without the need for evidence. The Petitioner withdrew his challenge to item 10A. The Respondent stipulated that the Petitioner's performance on item 2A had been incorrectly graded, and agreed that 1.5 points should be added to the Petitioner's grade on the subject examination. On five of the items challenged by the Petitioner, one of the examiners gave the Petitioner credit for successful completion of the procedure and the other examiner did not.4 With regard to these five items, the Petitioner's primary contention is that, if one examiner gave him credit, he should also have received credit from the other examiner. However, given the nature of the manner in which the clinical examination is conducted, different scores by examiners evaluating a candidate's performance are not unusual, and, standing alone, different scores are not indicative of any irregularity in the manner in which the examination was conducted. On the clinical portion of the optometry licensure examination, each candidate is evaluated by two examiners, each of whom grades the candidate's performance of a procedure independently of the other examiner. Further, the examiners are not permitted to confer with each other regarding a candidate's scores. Specific written grading standards have been prepared for each of the procedures candidates are required to perform as part of the clinical portion of the subject examination. These written grading standards are provided to all examiners prior to each examination so that the examiners can review the standards and be prepared to apply them in a fair and even-handed manner. Before serving as an examiner, each proposed examiner goes through a training session. During the training session, each proposed examiner practices scoring the performance of various optometry procedures. Following the practice sessions, the work of each examiner is evaluated to determine whether the examiner is correctly applying the grading standards. If a potential examiner is unable to demonstrate the ability to apply the grading standards, then that examiner is assigned to other duties and is not assigned to grade candidates on the licensure exam. The examiners assigned to grade the Petitioner on the clinical portion of the subject examination all successfully completed the training process and were determined to be acceptable by the Department. The examiners assigned to grade the Petitioner on the clinical portion of the subject examination were all experienced examiners and a statistical analysis of their scoring of all candidates on the subject examination demonstrates that they reliably applied the grading standards. With regard to the procedure required by item 14B, the Petitioner asserts that his ability to demonstrate the required procedure was impaired by the fact that the patient was photophobic. The greater weight of the evidence is otherwise. While the subject examination was in progress, two optometrists examined the patient and determined that the patient was not photophobic. There is no competent substantial evidence of any misconduct by any of the examiners who graded the Petitioner's performance during the subject examination. Similarly, there is no competent substantial evidence that the Department acted arbitrarily or capriciously, or that it abused its discretion. There is no competent substantial evidence that the scoring of the Petitioner's examination performance was flawed, other than the additional 1.5 points that the Department agreed should be given for item 2A.
Recommendation Based on the foregoing Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law, it is RECOMMENDED that a final order be issued concluding that the Petitioner is not entitled to a passing grade on the clinical section of the optometry licensure examination and dismissing the petition in this case. DONE AND ENTERED this 13th day of September, 2001, in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida. MICHAEL M. PARRISH Administrative Law Judge Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-3060 (850) 488-9675 SUNCOM 278-9675 Fax Filing (850) 921-6847 www.doah.state.fl.us Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 13th day of September, 2001.
The Issue The basic issue in this case concerns the validity of the 1983 Board of Podiatry licensure examination. The Petitioners contend that the examination was invalid for several reasons, and that because of such invalidity, they should be licensed as podiatrists even though they both failed the exam. The Respondent contends that the examination was valid, and that even if invalid, the Petitioners are not entitled to licensure unless and until they receive a passing grade on a licensure examination. Subsequent to the hearing a transcript of the proceedings was filed with the Hearing Officer on July 12, 1985. Pursuant to agreement of counsel, the parties were allowed three weeks from the filing of the transcript within which to file their proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law, which time period was later extended at the request of counsel for the Petitioners. On August 9, 1985, the Petitioners filed a proposed recommended order containing proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the Respondent filed proposed findings of fact and a memorandum of law. The posthearing submissions filed by the parties have been given careful consideration in the preparation of this Recommended Order. Specific rulings on each proposed finding of fact in the posthearing submissions are set forth in the appendix which is attached to and incorporated into this Recommended Order.
Findings Of Fact Based on the stipulations of the parties, on the exhibits received in evidence, and on the testimony of the witnesses at the formal hearing, I make the following findings of fact. At all times relevant to these proceedings the licensure examination administered by the Board of Podiatry has tested the following nine subject matter areas: anatomy, biochemistry, orthopedic podiatry, surgery; clinical podiatry and differential diagnosis, physiology, materia medica and pharmacology, pathology, and dermatology. At all relevant times the licensure examination has consisted of a total of 360 questions: forty questions on each of the nine subject matter areas covered by the examination. At all relevant times an overall average of seventy-five per cent (75 percent) has been required to achieve a passing score for the examination. An additional proviso at all relevant times is that a passing grade will not be given to any person who fails to achieve a minimum grade of fifty per cent (50 percent) in any one of the nine subject areas. The Petitioners Dr. Pascual Estevez and Dr. Victor Verjano, took the Board of Podiatry licensure examination in each of the following years: 1982, 1983, 1984. Both Petitioners failed all three exams. 1/ Dr. Estevez' scores on the 1982 and 1983 examinations were as follows: SUBJECT 1982 SCORE 1983 SCORE anatomy 30.0 percent 42.5 percent biochemistry 50.0 percent 60.0 percent orthopedic podiatry 45.0 percent 27.5 percent surgery 47.5 percent 50.0 percent clinical podiatry and differential diagnosis 32.5 percent 35.0 percent physiology 37.5 percent 40.0 percent materia medica and pharmacology 25.0 percent 45.0 percent pathology 40.0 percent 52.5 percent dermatology 45.0 percent 60.0 percent OVERALL AVERAGE 39.17 percent 45.8 percent Dr. Verjano's scores on the 1982 and 1983 examinations were as follows: SUBJECT 1982 SCORE 1983 SCORE anatomy 17.5 percent 37.5 percent biochemistry 40.0 percent 57.5 percent orthopedic podiatry 30.0 percent 30.0 percent surgery 27.5 percent 47.5 percent clinical podiatry and differential diagnosis 35.0 percent 27.5 percent physiology 22.5 percent 37.5 percent materia medica and pharmacology 20.0 percent 35.0 percent pathology 30.0 percent 55.0 percent dermatology 37.5 percent 57.5 percent OVERALL AVERAGE 28.89 percent 42.7 percent The 1983 Board of Podiatry licensure examination was the first podiatry examination that used questions solicited from professors of podiatry at several colleges of podiatry outside the state of Florida. The Board could not obtain questions from professors of podiatry within the state of Florida because there are no colleges of podiatry in this state. The Board preferred to avoid soliciting questions from podiatrists practicing in this state so that there would not be any local knowledge of the examination content readily available within the state. The decision to obtain a new pool of questions from professors of podiatry was a result of the opinion of the Board of Podiatry that the level of difficulty of previous examinations probably tested less than minimum competency. The Board felt that questions should be of a higher difficulty level than had been used on previous examinations because they were concerned that incompetent people were managing to "sneak through." When the Office of Examination Services wrote to the college professors to request that they prepare questions to be used on the examination, the letters to the professors included the following information with respect to the level of difficulty the Board preferred: For our purposes, the content tested by an item should be clearly pertinent to the mainstream practice of podiatry and ideally of a difficulty level such that you would expect most of the upper third of a graduating class to answer correctly while the majority of the lower third would find the item to be quite difficult. As regards to the difficulty level, the Board would prefer that in departing from the ideal you tend to favor higher difficulty levels. The college professors who prepared questions for the 1983 Board of Podiatry licensure examination did not all follow the guidelines quoted immediately above. Some of them wrote questions which in the opinion of the Board were too easy. The questions for the 1983 Board of Podiatry licensure examination were derived from three sources: those submitted under contract by selected professional faculty members at colleges of podiatry in California, Iowa, and Pennsylvania (approximately 50 percent of the questions), those prepared by the five professional members of the Podiatry Board (about 25 percent), and items selected by the developer from the item bank (about 25 percent). The latter were specifically selected for high discrimination between passing and failing candidates on a previous exam. This group of 89 test items was used to estimate the relative capability of the 1983 candidates. The remaining test items were selected by the professional members of the Board from the 337 items submitted by consultants and those contributed by the Board members themselves. Each question that was used on the 1983 Board of Podiatry licensure examination was submitted to the Board for review before being included on the examination. The Board reviewed and considered every question submitted and selected only those they felt were adequate to test the candidates' competency. They rejected questions which were too hard as well as those which were too easy. Following the administration of the 1983 Board of Podiatry licensure examination, each answer sheet was scored and a complete item analysis was generated for review by the examination development team. All items which were passed by 50 per cent or fewer of the candidates were scrutinized. Additional scrutiny was also given to items which displayed negative discrimination indices, i.e., those items passed by a greater proportion of low scoring examinees than high scoring examinees. A total of 109 items were identified for review by the Board. At its meeting on August 6, 1983, the Board determined that three items had been mis-keyed and that 39 items merited credit for all responses because of various defects. There remained a large number of questions which were of questionable validity because of the low percentage of upper half candidates who answered them correctly. A second review was conducted following submission of objections filed by candidates. Five additional examination items were credited for all responses and two were double keyed. Following the foregoing actions, a final psychometric review was conducted by the Office of Examination Services and 15 additional items were credited for all responses on statistical grounds. As originally administered and scored, the 1983 Board of Podiatry licensure examination was of a difficulty level that tested for greater than minimum competency and was substantially more difficult than the examination that had been given in 1982. However, with the adjustments described above in paragraph 11 of these findings of fact, the difficulty level of the 1983 examination was substantially the same as the difficulty level of the 1982 examination. As adjusted, the difficulty level of the 1983 examination was such that it tested for minimum competency or perhaps less than minimum competency. As adjusted, the difficulty level of the 1983 Board of Podiatry examination was such that it did not test for greater than minimum competency. The effect of the adjustments described above was to delete from the examination the initial bias of the examination toward the more difficult items. As adjusted, the percentage of candidates who passed the 1983 examination was 50.4 percent, which compares favorably with the 51.1 percent pass rate for 1982. Following the final Board review which credited all of the items described above in paragraph 11 of these findings of fact, several members of the Board of Podiatry, including its chairman, Dr. Owen P. Macken felt that although the examination was a valid measurement of minimal competency as initially given, once it was "watered down" by the removal of so many items it became an invalid measurement because the Department had given credit for too many questions. A total of 117 candidates took the 1983 Board of Podiatry licensure examination. As finally scored, fifty-nine of those candidates passed the examination. Expressed as a percentage, 50.4 percent of those who took the 1983 examination received a passing grade. Out of the total of 117 candidates who took the 1983 examination; the score of Dr. Verjano was; at best, 113th from the top, and perhaps as low as 116th from the top. The 1983 score of Dr. Estevez was, at best 110th from the top, and perhaps as low as 112th from the top. Compared from the other end of the scale, Dr. Verjano had perhaps the second worst grade of all 117 who took the 1983 examination and had no better than the fifth worst grade of all who took the examination. Dr. Estevez had perhaps the sixth worst grade of all 117 who took the 1983 examination and had no better than the eighth worst grade. 2/ As demonstrated by the "anchor questions," the candidates for examination who took the 1983 Board of Podiatry Licensure examination had characteristics very similar to the characteristics of the candidates who took the 1982 examination. In view of this similarity of the two groups of candidates who took the 1983 and the 1982 examinations, the fact that their success rate was very similar indicates that the difficulty level of the two examinations (as finally adjusted) was very similar. Accordingly, a candidate who passed one examination would probably have passed the other examination, and a candidate who made a very poor grade on one examination would probably have made a very poor grade on the other examination. The Board of Podiatry is composed of two lay members and five professional members. Each of the professional members is a licensed Florida podiatrist currently engaged in the active practice of podiatry in the state of Florida. The function of the Board differs from that of the Department of Professional Regulation. The Board is charged with determining the content of the examination questions so as to ensure that every podiatrist practicing in the state meets minimum requirements of safe practice and that podiatrists who fall below such minimum competency or who otherwise present a danger to the public health would be prohibited from practicing in the state. The Board also determines the general areas to be tested and the score that shall be necessary evidence of passing the examination. The Department's function through its examination development specialists is to ensure that the test items or questions are functioning as they were intended and to advise the Board as to the worth of the individual items. Although a national podiatry examination is available, the Board of Podiatry has chosen not to use it. This appears to be due in part to the differences from state to state in the lawful scope of the practice of podiatry, some states limiting the practice to the foot while in Florida the scope of practice extends up to the knee.
Recommendation On the basis of all the foregoing it is recommended that the Board of Podiatry enter a Final Order concluding that the Petitioners have failed the 1983 examination and denying the Petitioners' applications for licensure on the basis of their having failed the 1983 examination. DONE AND ORDERED this 1st day of November, 1985, at Tallahassee Florida. MICHAEL M. PARRISH, Hearing Officer Division of Administrative Hearings The Oakland Building 2009 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32301 (904) 488-9675 Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 1st day of November, 1985.
The Issue Whether Petitioner is entitled to receive a passing score on the clinical portion of the August 1999 optometry licensure examination.
Findings Of Fact Petitioner, Sandra Farhady (Farhady), took the Florida optometry licensure examination in August 1999. The examination is divided into four portions: laws and rules, pharmacology, clinical, and certification. Prior to the administration of the test, each examiner is given grading standards, which are the requirements that must be met by a candidate to successfully demonstrate a particular procedure. All examiners receive standardization training, during which the examiners are trained to apply grading standards consistently. Examiners are instructed to wear their best corrective lenses. Examiners are instructed to grade each applicant independently of each other and are not permitted to confer with each other concerning a candidate's score. If both examiners agree, the candidate receives no credit or full credit, depending on whether they considered the candidate to have properly performed the procedure requested. If they disagree, the candidate is given partial credit on that procedure. The clinical portion of the examination requires the applicant to perform a number of tasks while two examiners evaluate the procedures. The examiners observe the procedure through a viewing system known as a teaching tube which is attached to the optometrist's equipment used by the candidate. Only one teaching tube is used so each examiner views the procedure separately. The candidate may ask the first examiner to grade his view and hold the view for the second examiner without having to refocus, or the candidate may perform the procedure for each examiner. Farhady passed the laws and rules, pharmacology, and certification portions of the examination, but failed the clinical portion of the examination with a score of 69.1. The passing score for the clinical examination is 75.0. Farhady challenged the score that she received on question 11a of the clinical examination. The question dealt with a procedure called retinoscopy, and the Department conceded at final hearing that Farhady should have been given credit for her answer. The additional points associated with question 11a raised Farhady's final score to 70.125. Farhady challenged the score she received for questions 33a, 33b, 33c, and 34a of the clinical examination. The questions relate to a procedure known as applanation tonometry, which is used to check a patient for glaucoma by measuring the intraocular pressure. This portion of the examination was worth ten points. Applanation tonometry is performed using a tonometer. The tonometers used by all the candidates for the August 1999 examination were part of a Zeiss slit lamp, which is also called a Zeiss microscope. It is an apparatus commonly used by optometrists within the scope of their practice. Each of the tonometers had a large fixation device mounted on the left side of the microscope. On the day of the clinical portion of the examination, the tonometer used by Farhady was in working order. No other candidate made a complaint concerning the working condition of the tonometer. The tonometer used by Farhady was not altered before, during, or after Farhady's session. There are time limits for section two of the clinical portion of the examination, which includes the applanation tonometry procedure. The Candidate Information Booklet for the Optometry Examination, which is provided to all candidates prior to the examination, provides: To protect the patient and to evaluate clinical competency, we will put time limits on the amount of time you will have to attempt each of the Section Two procedures. Timing will start after you receive the initial instructions for each procedure from the examiners and will continue until completion of the procedure or until time expires. . . . The time limit for the applanation tonometry procedure is six minutes. Farahady was unable to complete the applanation tonometry within the time allowed during the examination. She could not make the probe of the tonometer contact the patient's eye. During the procedure she advised the examiners, "Something is up with the tonometer." Farhady filled in a Candidate Comment Form and stated the following: Unable to acquire a view on tonometry. Mires were clear but fluorescent pattern not correct. It appeared like ground glass. I reapplied NAFI, but same view was seen so no grading was possible & I ran out of time. One of the examiner's noted the following on the Examiner's Comment Form: Pt. Ran out of time on tonometry--was apparently unable to see mires. Mires did not 'Flouress' well but was easily visible. Light source was close to 90 [degrees] away which may have contributed. Tonometry was repeated by this examiner without instilling new NaFl successfully by brightening the light source & bringing it to 60 [degrees]. Farhady contends that the position of the fixation device prevented her from being able complete the tonometry procedure. The fixation device can be easily moved to one side, pushed back, or folded up. If the fixation device was hindering Farhady in bringing the tonometer probe in contact with the patient's eye, Farhady could have quickly and easily moved the device out of her way. The position of the fixation device is not a defect in the tonometer equipment, which would have prevented a candidate from successfully performing applanation tonometry. Item 33a was the evaluation of whether the illumination source was a proper angle of 40 to 60 degrees. Item 33b evaluated whether the mires were the proper width. Item 33c evaluated whether the mires alignment was correct. Item 34 was the evaluation of whether the candidate obtained an accurate reading of the intraocular pressure. Farhady did not have the proper angle, did not demonstrate whether the mires were the proper width, did not align the mires correctly, and did not obtain a reading of intraocular pressure. Farhady challenged the score she received for questions 25a, 26a, 27a, 28a, 30a, and 32a, in section two of the clinical examination. These questions relate to a procedure referred to as biomicroscopy of the fundus. The scores given by the examiners for these questions were not identical. Examiner 199 did not give Farhady any points for questions 25a, 26a, 27a, 28a, and 32a. Examiner 199 noted that Farhady did not establish the proper focus with respect to these procedures. While examiner 231 did give Farhady points for procedure 25a, examiner 231 noted that Farhady had achieved only a borderline focus. Both examiners noted poor focus with respect to question 32a and did not give Farhady credit for that question. Question 25a required proper focus of nerve head. Examiner 199 noted the following on the grade sheet with respect to question 25a: Could not get it in view in left ocular. Candidate even verbalized this. For questions 26a, 27a, and 28a, examiner 199 noted that Farhady had no focus. For question 32a, examiner 199 noted, "could not/would not maintain focus." Farhady challenges the scores she received for questions 2a and 4a on section one of the clinical examination. These questions relate to visual field testing. The candidate is shown a visual field and is asked questions pertaining to the visual field. When Farhady was shown the visual field, she immediately said out loud that it was a glaucomatous loss before the examiner could read the instructions to her. The examiner said, "no" and began to read the instructions. Farhady thought that the examiner meant that it was not a glaucomatous loss. The examiner manual advises the examiners to avoid any comments which the candidate could interpret as favorable or unfavorable. For question 2a, Farhady was asked to name the visual field defect. She stated that it was arcuate scotoma. The correct answer was superior arcuate scotoma. Credit is not given for partial answers. It is important that the candidate identify whether it is a superior or an inferior arcuate scotoma in order to establish the location of the lesion so that the correct diagnosis can be made. Whether the examiner said "no" is irrelevant to the answer which Farhady gave to question 2a because she did identify that it was an arcuate scotoma. For question 4a, Farhady was asked which disease would be most consistent with the visual field defect. Farhady answered supracellar craniopharyngioma, which is incorrect. In layman's terms, a supracellar craniopharyngioma is a tumor of the pituitary gland. A visual field of a tumor of the pituitary gland is a bitemporal configuration not an arcuate configuration, meaning that Farhady's answer did not correlate in any way with the visual field defect. It was improper for the examiner to have said "no" after Farhady responded that it was a glaucomatous loss. It could have been interpreted by a candidate, as it was by Farhady, that her response was incorrect. The examiner should have told Farhady to wait until the instructions were read. Question 4a was worth 1.5 points, giving Farhady a total percent score of 71.6, which is not a passing score.
Recommendation Based on the foregoing Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law, it is RECOMMENDED that a final order be entered finding that Sandra D. Farhady did not pass the clinical portion of the August 1999 optometry licensure examination and dismissing her petition. DONE AND ENTERED this 13th day of April, 2000, in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida. SUSAN B. KIRKLAND Administrative Law Judge Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-3060 (850) 488-9675 SUNCOM 278-9675 Fax Filing (850) 921-6847 www.doah.state.fl.us Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 13th day of April, 2000. COPIES FURNISHED: Joe Baker, Jr., Executive Director Board of Optometry Department of Health 1940 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, Florida 32399-0750 Angela T. Hall, Agency Clerk Department of Health 2020 Capital Circle, Southeast Bin A02 Tallahassee, Florida 32399-1703 Angela T. Hall, Esquire Department of Health 2020 Capital Circle, Southeast Bin A02 Tallahassee, Florida 32399-1703 Sandra D. Farhady 6404 Wiley Street Hollywood, Florida 33023
The Issue Whether petitioner should have been awarded a passing grade on the clinical portion of the September 1990 optometry licensure examination?
Findings Of Fact As instructed, petitioner reported for the clinical portion of his optometry licensure examination with his own retinoscope. But the patient he brought with him was not suitable (as a subject for another candidate) because neither of her eyes had spherical objective and subjective error cali- brated in minus cylinder form within +6.0D to -6.0D and . . . an astigmatic correction objectively and subjectively within +0.75 to +4.0D or -0.75 to -4.0D. Respondent's Exhibit No. 1. Once this was discovered, petitioner left the examination site, recruited another patient, and returned in time to take the examination with a group of about ten other applicants. An information pamphlet explained beforehand what the candidates would be asked to do during the clinical examination: . . . You will be allowed 35 minutes to com- plete this section. Two licensed optometrists will independently observe and grade you. You may conduct the specified procedures in any appropriate order. A blank sheet of paper will be provided to you to record the results of your examination. You are allowed a brief period of time to make notes on the blank sheet of paper before you enter the examination room. Tests should be done on both eyes (including dilated eye). Points will be assigned according to the criteria listed below: Patient History (5 points) Chief complaint Personal medical history Personal ocular history Family medical history Family ocular history Follow-up Information (7 points) Follow-up as necessary on the above criteria. Visual Acuity (2 points) Pupillary Examination (6 points) Pupil size Direct and consensual response to light Afferent Pupillary Reflex Confrontation Fields Test (4 points) Confrontation Fields test should be done as described in Duane, J.D. Clinical Ophthal- mology, Harper and Row. Extra-ocular muscle balance (4 points) Versions Distance cover test Objective examination (retinoscopy) (8 points) Note: Points will be assigned on the basis of a comparison to the range obtained by licensed optometrists. Subjective refraction (12 points) Note: Points will be assigned on the basis of a comparison to the range obtained by licensed optometrists. In the second section, you will examine your own patient's eyes. This portion will be graded by examiners different from the exam- iners of Section 1. They will give you direc- tions and request certain views of the eye or ask for information as observe your performance through a teaching arm on the slit lamp or a teaching mirror on the BIO. They will assign grades independently. You will be asked to do the following procedures according to the specified criteria: Binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy (15 points) Accurately views and evaluates retinal land- marks as requested. Five points will be given for each of the three areas. Note: Patient will be in reclined position during this pro- cedure. We will supply a Keeler BIO headset. However, you will be allowed to use your own BIO if it has attached teaching mirrors. Biomicroscopy (anterior segment) (16 points) Demonstrates requested view of anterior struc- tures of the eye. Four points each will be given for performance related to: Cornea Anterior chamber Lens Anterior vitreous Goldman[n] tonometry (5 points) Accurately measures intra-ocular pressure. Biomicroscopy (posterior segment) (8 points) Accurately views and evaluates posterior pole landmarks as requested with two points each for four designated areas. Note: The Zeiss slit lamps are equipped with Hruby lenses. If you prefer a fundus contact lens, or a 90 diopter lens, you must provide your own lens. Gonioscopy (8 points) Accurately views and evaluates angle structure. To protect the patient, we will put time limits on the amount of time you will have to attempt each of the section two procedures. Timing will start after you receive the instructions from the examiner and will continue until you notify the examiner to grade the procedure. Respondent's Exhibit No. 1. After petitioner's return with a patient whose eyes met the examiners' criteria, he was tested in the manner the candidate information booklet had described, which is the same procedure that has been followed since 1986. Refractions Robert Roos, a 43-year-old compound myopic astigmatic (who was assigned the number 079), was the patient it fell to petitioner to examine in section one. Before petitioner saw Mr. Roos, three licensed optometrists independently evaluated Roos' eyes. After objective refraction or retinoscopy of his right eye, they recorded astigmatic orientation or axis values of 110o, 115o and 116o, spherical values of -2.75, -2.5 and -1.75 diopters, and cyllindrical values of - 1.0, -1.75 and -1.75 diopters. Their subjective examination of the same eye yielded axis values of 107o, 110o and 111o, spherical values of -2.25, -2.25 and -1.75 diopters, and cyllindrical values of -1.5, -1.5 and -2.0 diopters. After the examiners' retinoscopy and subjective refraction, but before the candidates evaluate the patients, their left eyes are dilated with drops containing 1.0% tropicamide and 2.5% neosynephrine, the same solution that has been used since 1983. The result is left-eyed cycloplegia, paralysis of the intraocular muscle which precludes normal pupillary response of the kind petitioner observed (and reported as +4) in Mr. Roos' right eye, just before performing the refractions. (Patients' left eyes are dilated so candidates can perform other procedures.) As required, petitioner performed his own objective refraction with a retinoscope. He reported an astigmatic orientation of 105o, assigned a spherical value of -0.75 diopters, and put the cylindrical value at -2.25 diopters, for Mr. Roos' (undilated) right eye. After subjective evaluation, he reported a prescription he said effected a correction to 20/20 (a claim no examiner had occasion to evaluate), an axis value of 100o, a spherical value of -1.25 diopters and a cylindrical value of -2.0 diopters. In keeping with the grading protocol applied evenhandedly to all candidates, petitioner's evaluations were compared, item by item, to those of the examiner who most nearly agreed with his conclusions. This yielded discrepancies of 5o, 1.0 and 0.5 diopters for the retinoscopic or objective refraction results; and of 7o, 0.5 and 0.0 diopters for the subjective results. In no case did his results fall between differing examiners' results, although he agreed with one examiner on one result. Petitioner received two points for the objective refraction portion of the test and three points for the subjective portion. Chamber Depth For section two of the clinical portion of the test, Mr. Roos returned to the candidate with whom he came to the examination, and petitioner turned to the eleventh-hour recruit who had accompanied him. Reading the prescribed script, an examiner instructed petitioner in these words: Estimate the depth of the anterior chamber using the Von Herrick-Shaffer technique. Remember that IV is wide open and I is narrow. Respondent's Exhibit No. 2. The anterior chamber is deepest at the center and shallowest near the limbus, where the cornea joins the sclera, and aqueous fluid filters out of the eye. Because the angle at the junction affects the rate of flow, the depth at the chamber periphery is more likely to be of clinical significance than the depth at the center. The Von Herrick-Shaffer technique is a means of measuring chamber depth at the periphery, and not in the middle: a slit lamp casts the cornea's shadow on the chamber floor, and the ratio between the length of the shadow and the width of the cornea is determined. By whatever technique, custom and practice mandate measurement of the depth of the anterior chamber at the edge. When petitioner reported the depth at the center of the chamber, neither examiner (both of whom evaluated independently) awarded any points. Tonometry The Goldmann tonometry portion of the test required candidates to gauge intraocular pressure by placing fluorescein on the white of the patient's eye, then placing a probe and aligning the mires of the tonometer. An examiner read to each candidate these directions beforehand: Add fluorescein to non-dilated eye. Perform applanation tonometry and indicate when you have the proper measurement. You will be given a maximum of 2 minutes to perform this procedure. Respondent's Exhibit No. 2. Because the first examiner gave petitioner full credit, and the second gave him no credit, he received half credit for this part of the examination. At hearing, petitioner testified that he was not ready for the second examiner to grade, and conceded that the mires were no longer in alignment when the second examiner checked. (The second examiner also noted a misplaced light source.) But petitioner, who had the prerogative to "indicate when [he] ha[d] the proper measurement," Respondent's Exhibit No. 2, and did so before the first examiner checked, said nothing to the second examiner (who followed closely on the first) to indicate that he felt the measurement was no longer "proper."
Recommendation It is, accordingly, recommended that respondent deny petitioner's application for licensure on the basis of the September 1990 optometry licensure examination, without prejudice to any subsequent application. RECOMMENDED this 10th day of September, 1991, in Tallahassee, Florida. ROBERT T. BENTON, II Hearing Officer Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, FL 32399-1550 (904) 488-9675 Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 10th day of August, 1991. COPIES FURNISHED: Alejandro M. Tirado 606 First Street Neptune Beach, FL 32266 Vytas J. Urba, Esquire 1940 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, FL 32399-0792 Jack McRay, General Counsel Department of Professional Regulation 1940 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, FL 32399-0792 Patricia Guilford, Executive Director Board of Optometry 1940 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, FL 32399-0792
Findings Of Fact At all times material hereto, Respondent was a licensed medical doctor in the State of Florida having been issued License No. 0020340. Respondent specializes in the practice of ophthalmology, and is board-certified in that specialty. As indicated above, Respondent has been charged in a three-count complaint with various violations concerning his treatment of three patients. For purposes of clarity, the Findings of Fact section of this Recommended Order will, therefore, treat each such patient separately. ETTA ROSE Respondent first saw Etta Rose as a patient on March 17, 1980. At that time Ms. Rose gave a history of having had "floaters" in both eyes, in her left eye for three months and in her right eye for approximately the past three years. She also indicated a history of hypertension of five years duration. On her initial visit, Ms. Rose informed Respondent that she had last had an eye examination in December of 1978, but could not recall the name of the examining doctor. Upon physical examination on the initial visit of March 17, Respondent determined that the patient had intraocular pressures of 25 in her right eye and 26 in her left eye. In this connection, intraocular pressures of from 12 to 21 are considered roughly normal in a general patient population, and any readings above those levels are generally considered to be elevated. In addition to the above-noted intraocular pressures, Respondent also determined-on this initial visit that the patient had asymmetric nerve heads, the nerve heads in her left eye being markedly larger than those in the right. This degree of difference, according to Respondent's determination, could not be attributed to a congenital defect. Since this degree of differential in the size of the optic nerve heads occurs in less than one percent of the population, this fact, taken together with the patient's elevated intraocular pressures, resulted in Respondent's diagnosis of probable glaucoma. As a result of Respondent's physical findings as outlined above, together with the lack of information from prior treating physicians, Respondent determined that in order to avoid potentially irreversible damage to the patient's eyes, he needed to administer as high a dosage of medication to bring down the patient's intraocular pressures as rapidly as possible. Accordingly, on March 17, 1980, Respondent prescribed a one percent solution of pilocarpine to be administered to the patient's eyes every four hours. Pilocarpine is an old conservative glaucoma medication used specifically to reduce intraocular pressures. A one percent pilocarpine solution' is a relatively light dosage. Therefore, on March 20, 1980, Respondent increased the dosage of pilocarpine to two percent every four hours, and on March 24, 1980, again increased the dosage of pilocarpine to four percent every four hours. Additionally, on March 28, 1980, Respondent added the drug timolol to his attempted medical management of the patient's pressures. It is not medically advisable to start a patient directly on a four percent pilocarpine solution because of the distinct danger of side effects, such as headaches and dimness of vision. As a result, Respondent utilized a process known as "titrating," by starting the patient on a lowered dosage of medication, and rapidly bringing the patient to a maximum dosage, watching carefully during this period for evidence of side effects. The patient in this case apparently experienced no such ill side effects. During his second office visit with the patient on March 20, 1980, Respondent performed a gonioscopy to evaluate the angle where the patient's cornea touched near the iris. This procedure showed the patient to have wide open angles and no scarring. Respondent therefore concluded that the patient suffered from chronic open-angle glaucoma, which was consistent with his initial diagnosis on the first visit of March 17, 1980. On March 20, 1980, the patient's intraocular pressures were 21 in the right eye and 23 in the left eye. During the entire course of his treatment of this patient, Respondent saw the patient in his office on the following dates: March 17, 20, 24, and 28, 1980; April 3, 8, and 22, 1980; May 20, 1980; and June 24, 26, and 27, 1980. Because of the asymmetry in the patient's optic nerve heads, her elevated pressures, and her lack of medical history to demonstrate the progress, if any, of glaucoma, Respondent determined it to be necessary to develop as accurate a profile on the patient as quickly as possible. The purpose of these office visits, which occurred at different times during the day, was to approximate a "diurnal curve." A diurnal curve is a method for determining fluctuating intraocular pressures of a patient, and is customarily obtained by admitting the patient to a hospital, and checking pressures in the patient's eyes approximately every two hours over a 24-hour period. The purpose of the procedure is to obtain an accurate 24-hour reading of the patient's pressures, since pressures within the eye can fluctuate markedly during different times of the day. Respondent determined admitting Ms. Rose to the hospital to be impractical, and set upon a course of seeing her in his office on several rather closely spaced days at different times of the day in order to get a more accurate understanding of her condition. By the time Respondent last saw the patient in his office on June 26, 1980, the patient was on a four percent pilocarpine solution four times a day, .5 percent timolol, and diomox b.i.d., and her pressure in her left eye still remained 26. At that time Respondent determined that he had the option of continuing to carry the patient on these dosages of medication, in which case he determined that the patient would probably go on to progressive damage, or, alternatively, surgical intervention. Respondent determined this amount of medication to have maximized medical therapy and, as a result, recommended a trabeculectomy to attempt to lower the patient's pressures. This surgical recommendation was made on June 27, 1980, at which time Respondent invited the patient to seek a second opinion, recommending that she consult ophthalmologists at the Bascom Palmer Eye Institute at the University of Miami Medical School. The patient sought such an opinion, and elected not to undergo the surgery recommended by Respondent. As a result, the office visit of June 27, 1980, was the last time Respondent saw Etta Rose as a patient. Respondent's diagnosis of the patient at the last visit was chronic open-angle glaucoma that was uncontrollable on medical therapy. The patient was apparently seen by an ophithalmologist on May 15, 1981, and again in January of 1982. The physician who last examined the patient determined that the patient, although she had slightly elevated intraocular pressures, "probably" did not have glaucoma, but should be followed as a "glaucoma suspect" because of the difference in the size of her optic nerves. The record in this cause establishes that there are three parameters generally accepted for diagnosing glaucoma: intraocular pressures; visual fields; and the appearance of the optic nerve. As previously indicated pressures above 21 are generally considered elevated. Throughout Respondent's treatment of Ms. Rose it appears that her intraocular pressures were at all times elevated, and that the optic nerve heads in her left eye were markedly larger than those in her right eye. The record also demonstrates that she evidenced no visual field loss while being treated by Respondent or thereafter. A trabeculectomy is a surgical procedure used in the treatment of glaucoma as a last resort when all other treatment modalities have been exhausted. There is some degree of danger inherent in the procedure, and it is associated with a high failure and complication rate, and can lead to the formation of cataracts. As indicated above, Respondent is charged in the Administrative Complaint with requiring Ms. Rose to come to his office an excessive number of times, with prescribing excessive medication for her condition, and with recommending unnecessary surgery. With respect to the charge of requiring excessive office visits, it is specifically concluded that Respondent exercised that level of care, skill, and treatment which was reasonable under the circumstances given the fact that the patient had elevated intraocular pressures, asymmetric optic nerve heads, and was unable to furnish Respondent with a history that would justify less aggressive treatment than the methods employed by Respondent. Because of these factors, Respondent reasonably determined that the patient should be seen often during the initial stages of therapy particularly in order to evaluate fluctuations in the patient's intraocular pressures. At final hearing, Petitioner adduced credible testimony from two board-certified ophthalmologists that Respondent prescribed excessive medication to Ms. Rose over his period of treatment of that patient. Specifically, these physicians took exception to Respondent's increasing the dosages of pilocarpine from one percent to a four percent solution over an approximately 11-day period. These physicians felt the better practice would have been to proceed more slowly to determine how the patient's pressures were reacting to medication. Equally credible, however, was testimony from the Respondent himself and from another board-certified ophthalmologist that the procedure known as "titrating" whereby the patient is started on a lower dosage and worked to a higher dosage over a short span of time was also reasonable medical treatment under the circumstances. The patient was seen frequently so that any side effects from this increase in medication could be monitored by Respondent. In addition, because of the high degree of difference in the size of the optic nerve heads in the patient's two eyes, Respondent reasonably assumed that glaucoma, if it were present, had progressed to such an extent that it was necessary to get the patient's intraocular pressures under control as rapidly as possible. Respondent reasoned that, should the pressures be brought under control at a higher level of medication, the medication could always be cut back, whereas, if he proceeded more slowly irreversible damage might occur in the interim. This record simply reflects that reasonable ophthalmologists might disagree with respect to the proper administration of medication in this context and, as a result, it cannot be determined from this record that Respondent acted unreasonably in his course of prescribing medications to Etta Rose. Finally, Petitioner adduced credible testimony at final hearing that the trabeculectomy recommended by Respondent was improper because Respondent had not reached maximum medical management of the patients condition in that he had not utilized oral diuretics or epinephrine as treatment modalities. The reasoning here is that until maximum medical management proves unsuccessful in controlling a patient's pressures, a remedy as drastic as a trabeculectomy should not be utilized. Petitioner's witnesses testified that based on the patient's marginally elevated pressures and the fact that she demonstrated no visual field loss, surgical intervention was improper. Again, equally credible testimony from both the Respondent and another board-certified ophthalmologist called as a witness by Respondent establishes that an equally reasonable interpretation of the data available to Respondent was that the patient was, indeed, under maximum medical management, and her intraocular pressures had not responded appropriately to this treatment regime. Further, the record also establishes that it is very unusual to find the degree of difference in the size of the optic nerve heads in this patient without visual field loss. Patients who demonstrate this size differential without visual field loss often do not develop visual field loss until relatively late in the progress of the disease, but when that loss occurs it occurs abruptly and profoundly. Thus, it appears that the risk of performing a trabeculectomy had to be weighed against the danger of irreversible damage from the progress of glaucoma. Under these circumstances, it was reasonable for Respondent to recommend surgery. It should be noted also that at the time Respondent recommended the surgical procedure, he also advised the patient that she was free to seek a second opinion. In addition, Respondent also adduced credible testimony that based on the drugs which he had prescribed medical management of this patient's condition would not have been furthered by adding epinephrine to his course of treatment. Accordingly, the facts of record in this cause do not establish that Respondent caused Etta Rose to visit his office an excessive number of times, that he prescribed excessive medication for his treatment of that patient, or that unnecessary surgery was recommended by Respondent. ALBERT MILLER Respondent first saw Albert Miller as a patient on September 29, 1976. Upon physical examination of the patient, Respondent had no reason to suspect the presence of glaucoma. The patient was next seen on March 16, 1977, for a check of his retina because of his history of diabetes. In addition to diabetes, the patient also had a history of hypertension. There were no changes in the patient's condition on the March 16, 1977, visit, and Respondent instituted no treatment. The patient was next seen for an annual check on May 22, 1978. The patient's vision with his glasses had worsened in both eyes at that time. The patient's history indicates that the patient's diabetes had been high just two months prior to this examination. The diabetes had apparently also affected the patient's intraocular pressures because they were found to be 20 in both eyes on this examination, whereas they had been 17 in the right eye and 16 in the left eye on September 29, 1976, when the patient was first seen by Respondent. Respondent chose not to institute active treatment of the patient after the May 22, 1978, visit. The patient was next seen on July 17, 1979. At that time his pressures were still 20 in both eyes and Respondent noted some slight increase in cataract formation and the presence of retinal hemorrhages in the patient's right eye, indicating some diabetic retinal changes that could make the patient's eyes more susceptible to disease. The patient was next seen on July 15, 1980, at which time his intraocular pressures were measured to be 26 in the right eye and 24 in the left eye. Although there is a notation in Respondent's record that the patient was "squeezing," which can artificially elevate pressures, the Respondent testified without contradiction that the "squeezing" noted in his records did not affect the accuracy of these recorded pressures. As of the July 15, 1980, office visit, Respondent diagnosed the patient as a "glaucoma suspect," which is someone who, because of existing physical factors, runs a substantial chance of developing future glaucoma. As a result of this diagnosis, the Respondent scheduled the patient for visual fields on July 17, 1980, and a gonioscopy on July 18, 1980. Visual fields performed by Respondent showed visual field defects which were suggestive of actual visual field loss on threshold stimulus testing. As a result the Respondent concluded that the patient might already have had early visual field loss, and started the patient on a one percent pilocarpine solution in both eyes, every four hours. The patient was next seen on July 22, 1980, at which time his pressures were measured to be 22 in the right eye and 20 in the left eye at 1:35 p.m. The patient was next seen on July 25, 1980, at which time his pressures were 24 in the right eye and 18 in the left eye. Respondent did not feel that a pressure of 24 in the right eye was adequate medical control, so he increased the patient's medication to two percent pilocarpine solution, and scheduled the patient to return on July 29, 1980. The July 25, 1980, pressure readings were conducted at 8:55 a.m., so the patient was scheduled to return in the early afternoon on July 29, 1980, in order to obtain pressure readings at a different time of day. On that occasion, the patient's pressures were 20 in the right eye and 22 in the left eye, which Respondent still determined not to be adequate medical management. Accordingly, Respondent increased the dosage of pilocarpine to a four percent solution. The patient was next seen on August 1, 1980, at which time his pressures were 21 in the right eye and 22 in the left eye. Respondent concluded the reading of 22 in the left eye, in light of possible visual field defects, was not adequate medical management, so he added 0.25 percent timolol to the four percent pilocarpine prescription. The effect of timolol is usually observable within 48 hours. The patient was next seen on August 5, 1980, at which time his pressures were 17 in the right eye and 18 in the left eye. Respondent was pleased with the lowering of the patient's pressures, and scheduled the patient to return on August 11, 1980. At that time the patient's pressure was 20 in both eyes. Respondent was pleased with these results, and felt that he did not need to see the patient again for a two-week period. The patient never returned. The last time the patient was seen by Respondent on August 11, 1980, the Respondent's diagnosis was "glaucoma suspect," although Respondent felt that he needed to follow the patient longer to monitor his visual fields and optic nerve heads. However, with the patient's history of diabetes, myopia, hypertension, and Respondent's determination that he showed early visual field changes, Respondent felt confident with his final diagnosis of "glaucoma suspect." The patient was subsequently examined by another ophthalmologist in the Fort Lauderdale area on August 28, 1980. At that time the patient's pressures were 19 in the right eye and 20 in the left eye. The patient was given a complete examination, which showed presence of dot and blot hemorrhages throughout the entire retina of both eyes, which was to be expected of a patient who was diabetic for the past 15 years, and had been taking insulin for that condition for the past eight years. The patient's optic nerves were normal, and the patient's cup to disc ratio was also normal. Because the patient's optic nerves were normal, he was taken off the pilocarpine which had been prescribed for him by the Respondent. A visual field test was also administered to the patient to determine the presence of any visual field loss secondary to glaucoma, but that test indicated normal vision. The normal cup to disc ratio found by the subsequent treating physician in examining the patient has remained stable throughout his entire course of treating the patient. The patient was last seen by the subsequent treating physician on May 25, 1982, at which time he had intraocular pressures of 16 in the right eye and 18 in the left eye without medication. Another visual field test was performed on that date, which again disclosed normal vision. The subsequent treating physician, like Respondent, diagnosed the patient to be a potential "glaucoma suspect." In the Administrative Complaint, Respondent is charged with requiring Mr. Miller to make an excessive and unnecessary number of office visits. The Respondent is also charged with failing to maintain records revealing the frequency of use of the pilocarpine prescribed for Mr. Miller, and further with failing to maintain records indicating the percentage dosage of timolol and the date of beginning of use of that drug. With respect to the latter charge, the record contains no facts to substantiate those allegations and, in fact, contains evidence that Respondent clearly noted in his records the information charged as lacking in the Administrative Complaint. The Administrative Complaint also charges Respondent with having required the patient to visit his office a total of ten times between July 17, 1980, and August 11, 1980, which is alleged to be ". . . an excessive an[sic] unnecessary number of office visits." The record in this cause establishes that the patient visited Respondent's office a total of eight times during that period. As indicated above, the patient had been seen by Respondent over a period of approximately four years before there was ever any indication of even marginally elevated pressures. Given the patient's history of diabetes and hypertension Respondent, in the exercise of his clinical judgment, determined to treat the condition with medication. Although the record in this cause contains credible testimony that some physicians would not have treated the condition at all, or would have seen the patient at most once a week, equally credible evidence contained in this record establishes that once the decision to treat was made and the patient was started on medication, it was entirely proper to monitor the patient closely to determine the effect that the medication was having on the patient's pressures. It should be noted that the Respondent is not charged in the Administrative Complaint with prescribing excessive or unnecessary medication. Based upon the foregoing, it is therefore concluded that there is an insufficient factual basis in the record in this proceeding to establish that, under the conditions present here, the Respondent departed from reasonable medical practice in seeing the' patient on eight occasions during approximately a one-month period. ELEANOR DRAGER This patient was first seen by Respondent on January 7, 1980. At that time the patient gave a history of having had her vision go blurry for 15 to 20 minutes on two occasions since the beginning of the year. An examination of the patient's eyes showed her vision to be 20/29 in her right eye and 20/100 in her left eye. Intraocular pressures were 30 in her right eye and 28 in the left eye, both of which are considered to be quite high. The patient's last eye examination had been in October of 1978. The patient was next seen on January 9, 1980, at which time Respondent determined it necessary to perform cataract surgery and to implant an intraocular lens. The surgery was performed on January 30, 1980, and, in addition to removing a cataract and implanting a lens, Respondent performed a posterior sclerotomy, a procedure performed by making a tiny hole in the eye wall and inserting a needle to aspirate vitreous fluid, thereby allowing the remaining vitreous to resume a normal position. The patient was seen postoperatively on February 1, 1980, and again on February 7, 1900. Respondent's practice is to visit frequently with postoperative patients in order to closely monitor the patient's condition. On the February 7, 1980, examination, the patient's vision was 20/70 in her left eye, which Respondent considered excellent for one week postsurgery. The pressure in the eye was 20 and there were no other changes of note. The patient was next seen on February 13, 1980, at which time her vision was only 20/200 in her left eye. The only other finding of note on this date was that the lens implant had shifted to a position closer to the cornea. The patient was next seen on March 13, 1980, at which time her vision was still 20/290 in the left eye, and her pressures were 22 in the right eye and 44 in the left eye. Respondent improved the patient's vision to 20/60 in her left eye with a lens change in her glasses. The patient was next seen on March 25, 1980, in response to a call from the patient indicating that on the previous day she had experienced foggy vision in her left eye, and within an hour could see nothing at all out of the eye., The patient had treated the problem herself with eye drops and, within a couple of hours, her vision had improved. Upon examination, Respondent discovered the patient's vision to be 20/200 in the left eye, with a pressure of Respondent restored the patient's vision to 20/25 with a glasses change, leading him to suspect, in view of the patient's recent surgery, that there was a possibility of retinal detachment or retinal tear with possible vitreous hemorrhage. Respondent was unable to see the entirety of the back of the Patient's eye in order to determine the presence of a retinal tear because a view of certain portions of the eye was blocked by the intraocular lens implant. The patient was next seen on March 31, 1980, complaining of "haze" over her left eye. The patient's vision has worsened to 20/40 in her left eye, and her intraocular pressures were 26 in both eyes. The Respondent again changed the lenses in the patient's glasses, restoring her vision to 20/25 in the left eye. The patient was next seen on April 14, 1980, still complaining of the "haze" over her left eye and an additional complaint of many black dots in the left eye since her last visit. Respondent dilated the eye, and found a large number of vitreous floaters present. Respondent concluded from the presence of these floaters that the patient had probably suffered a vitreous hemorrhage. The most common reason for floaters to be present in a postsurgical cataract patient with a vitreous hemorrhage is retinal tear. Respondent could not, however, actually see the retinal tear upon visual examination. The patient was seen again on April 16 and on April 18, 1980, complaining of an increase of black soots in her left eye. Upon examination, Respondent noted the presence of vitreous traction in the left eye, and determined that the patient should be scheduled for cryo-pexy surgery to be performed in his office on April 21, 1980. Cryo-pexy surgery is an operation that involves the application of cold, in this case a local drop of opthane, to the eyeball in order to produce a tissue destruction to release adhesions thereby avoiding potential retinal tear or detachment. The procedure can be performed in a physician's office, as opposed to a hospital, and requires only 10 to 15 minutes to perform. At the time cryo-pexy surgery was to be performed, Respondent had been unable to actually observe a retinal tear, although he had noted the presence of retinal traction. Respondent felt, however, that a retinal tear could have been caused by the placement of the needle through the pars plana during the course of performing the posterior sclerotomy on January 30, 1980. In fact, many ophthalmalogists perform cryo- pexy at the same time as a posterior schlerotomy in order to prevent a retinal tear from developing as a result of that procedure. Respondent chose to recommend cryo-pexy surgery for a variety of reasons. Among them were the recent cataract surgery, the implantation of an intraocular lens, the performance of the posterior sclerotomy, and the' patient's history of heart disease which would have made it more complicated to perform cutting surgery as opposed to cryo-pexy should an actual retinal detachment occur. The patient had a history of recent phlebitis which had hospitalized her, so that the possibility of placing her under general anesthesia in order to perform major surgery for a retinal detachment thereby leaving her inactive in a hospital bed for a period of days could have resulted in a complication of her phlebitis. The decision to perform cryo-pexy surgery involved the exercise of clinical judgment. Respondent, by necessity, had to weigh the dangers of performing the surgery against problems that might be associated with failure to perform the procedure. The three principal reasons advanced in this record for not performing this procedure were that Respondent's records indicated only the presence of "floaters" and not an actual vitreous hemorrhage; Respondent could not actually visualize the retinal tear prior to recommending surgery; and, the performance of cryo-pexy could have further traumatized an eye which had already been subjected to considerable surgical manipulation. In response to these considerations, Respondent testified, without contradiction, that he considered the presence of "floaters" to be synonymous with vitreous hemorrhage and, therefore, saw no reason to actually note the presence of hemorrhage in his notes. Further, although Respondent could not actually see a retinal tear in the patient's eye, based on his course of treatment of the patient he was aware of the site through which he had placed the needle in performing the posterior sclerotomy, and reasonably concluded that the performance of that procedure, in the presence of so great a quantity of floaters in the patient's eye, could have resulted in a retinal tear. In short, the patient's symptoms were consistent with development of a vitreous hemorrhage following cataract extraction. In light of the fact that the cataract extraction included the performance of a posterior sclerotomy through the pars plana, there was every reason to believe that the patient might have had a hole somewhere in the region of the sclerotomy site. Under these conditions cryo-pexy is an acceptable means of treating this condition despite being unable to see an actual retinal tear. The risk in delaying the performance of the cryo-pexy was that the retina could detach and the problem thereby become more difficult to manage. In making the decision to perform cryo-pexy, the Respondent weighed the risk of performing the procedure against the risk of not performing it, and reasonably determined that the best course of treatment was to perform the procedure.
