The Issue Whether Respondent, a licensed dentist, committed the offenses alleged in the First Amended Administrative Complaint and the penalties, if any, that should be imposed.
Findings Of Fact Petitioner is a state agency charged with regulating the practice of dentistry pursuant to Section 20.43, Florida Statutes, and Chapters 455 and 466, Florida Statutes. Pursuant to the authority of Section 20.43 (3)(g), Florida Statutes, Petitioner has contracted with the Agency for Health Care Administration to prosecute administrative complaints as required by the Board of Dentistry. Respondent is, and has been since 1966, a licensed dentist in the State of Florida, having been issued license number DN 0004148. At the time of the final hearing, Respondent’s office address was 4512 Flagler Drive, #301, West Palm Beach, Florida 33407-3802. One prior disciplinary proceeding has been filed against Respondent's license. The record is silent as to the details of that prior disciplinary action. In addition to a traditional general dental practice, Respondent practices alternative dentistry (also referred to by Respondent as biological dentistry) on chronically ill patients. In his alternative dental practice, Respondent utilizes unconventional diagnostic methodologies and homeopathic remedies. In December 1995 and January 1996, Respondent treated C. C., a female born May 10, 1950. At the times pertinent to this proceeding, C. C. considered herself to be pre-cancerous and chronically ill. C. C. believed that she had suffered radiation poisoning in 1986 when a cloud from the nuclear disaster at Chernobyl 2/ passed over her home in Italy while she was outside in the garden. C. C., a chiropractor, became interested in alternative dentistry and attended various seminars presented by proponents of alternative medicine and dentistry. C. C. consulted with different health care professionals, including dentists, medical doctors, and nutritionists, and became familiar with alternative dentistry and homeopathic remedies. C. C. believed that the amalgams in her teeth had become toxic and were inhibiting her recovery to full health. At one of these seminars in 1995, C. C. submitted to a test that purportedly revealed she suffered from heavy metal poisoning. She also examined her blood through a powerful microscope and found her blood to be unusual, which reinforced her belief that she was pre-cancerous. C. C. met Dr. Dietrich Klinghardt at a seminar in 1995 on the topic of alternative dentistry. The seminar attended by Dr. Klinghardt and C. C. included a discussion on toxicity from the oral cavity causing systemic health problems. The seminar also included a discussion on the treatment of dental conditions using homeopathic remedies. C. C. asked Dr. Klinghardt whether he thought she should have her amalgams replaced with non-toxic materials. He recommended that she do so and he also recommended that she have extracted any tooth that had a root canal. C. C. asked Dr. Klinghardt to recommend a dentist to remove her amalgams. Dr. Klinghardt recommended Respondent for the amalgam replacement. Notakehl, Pefrakehl, and Arthrokehlan, the three homeopathic remedies Respondent used in his subsequent treatment of C. C., were discussed at the seminar. These homeopathic remedies are referred to as Sanum remedies, which is a reference to the German manufacturer. In March of 1995, C. C. visited a dentist named Ira Windroff in South Florida. Dr. Windroff took a panoramic X-ray and X-rays of C. C.'s individual teeth. After the X-rays, Dr. Windroff referred C. C. to another dentist, who performed a root canal on C. C.'s tooth #19, which is in the lower left quadrant. On December 12, 1995, C. C. presented to Respondent's office to discuss having her amalgams replaced. C. C. was experiencing pain in tooth #19 on December 12, 1995. C. C. filled out a standard medical history form that Respondent had used in his practice for several years. C. C. discussed her medical and dental history with Respondent. C. C. told Respondent that she had a root canal on tooth #3 when she was a teenager and that she recently had a root canal on tooth #19. C. C. informed Respondent that she considered herself to be chronically ill and pre-cancerous. She told him she had suffered radiation poisoning in 1986 and preferred to have no unnecessary X-rays. She also told him that she was very weak from a recent bout of the flu. Respondent's office notes reflect that C. C. presented with lower left tooth pain (without identifying a specific tooth) and that he "muscle tested for origin." Respondent purported to evaluate C. C.'s medical and dental status by evaluating whether her autonomic nervous system responded to various stimuli. This form of testing will be referred to as ART, which is an acronym for "Autonomic Response Testing". The autonomic nervous system and ART were explained by several of the experts who testified in this proceeding. The human body has an autonomic nervous system consisting of a sympathetic part and a parasympathetic part. Both parts are regulated by the hypothalamus, which is located deep inside the brain. The nerves constituting the autonomic nervous system pass thorough ganglions, which are groups of nerve cells located outside the brain at different locations of the body that act as relay stations. The sympathetic part of the autonomic nervous system is generally believed to deal with the mechanisms that prepare the body to counteract stresses that come from outside the body. For example, if someone cuts his or her finger, the sympathetic part of the autonomic nervous system will cause blood vessels to contract so the body does not lose all of its blood. It also will prepare the body to fight or flee in response to an outside threat. The parasympathetic part of the autonomic nervous system deals with the body's inner secretions, such as insulin and digestive acids. The reactions of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic nervous system calm the body down after a stress and usually promote healing. Respondent's examination of C. C. on December 12, 1995, lasted between one hour (Respondent's estimate) and three hours (C. C.'s estimate). During part of the ART examination, C. C. reclined in a dental chair. When she was not in the dental chair, she reclined on a massage table. During the ART examination, Respondent used his dental assistant to serve as an indirect tester, which required her to be positioned between the patient and the examiner. The dental assistant held one of C. C.'s hands with one hand while extending her (the dental assistant's) free arm. According to those subscribing to this methodology, the physical contact between the dental assistant and C. C. established an electrical current between them, which caused the responses from C. C.'s autonomic nervous system to be transferred to the dental assistant. Respondent used the dental assistant's deltoid muscle to determine whether a particular stimulus had caused a response from C. C.'s autonomic nervous system. Respondent pushed down on the dental assistant's extended arm after exposing C. C. to a stimulus and evaluated the resistance he encountered. He believed he could determine by that resistance whether the dental assistance's deltoid muscle became weak or remained strong. If the dental assistant's deltoid muscle became weak following C. C.'s exposure to a stimulus, Respondent concluded that the autonomic nervous system had responded and that the area of the body being tested was not healthy. If the dental assistant's deltoid muscle remained strong, Respondent concluded that the autonomic nervous system had not responded and that the area of the body being tested was healthy. Respondent used his dental assistant as an indirect tester because he considered C. C. to be too weak to be directly tested, which would have required her to extend her arm throughout the examination. 3/ After he had C. C. place her hand over her belly button while she was in a reclined position and holding the dental assistant's hand, Respondent pushed down on the dental assistant's extended arm. Based on his evaluation of the resistance in the dental assistant's arm, Respondent believed that C. C.'s autonomic nervous system was in a protective mode. Respondent then attempted to determine the reasons for that finding. Respondent placed vials of various substances, including heavy metals, bacteria from root canal teeth, and homeopathic remedies, on C. C.'s lap to determine whether the substances triggered a response from C. C.'s autonomic nervous system. He placed his fingers on her individual teeth to determine whether that prompted a response from C. C.'s autonomic nervous system. Respondent believed that by ART he could determine the condition of C. C.'s internal organs, evaluate her dental problems, and identify the homeopathic remedies that would best promote healing. In addition to using ART, Respondent visually inspected C. C.'s teeth with a dental mirror, used a dental explorer to examine the edge of fillings and cracks in the teeth, probed her gums, percussed tooth #19, and palpitated all of her teeth. Although his dental records for this patient do not reflect that he did so and he could not remember having done so prior to C. C.'s deposition, the evidence established that Respondent reviewed the X-rays taken by Dr. Windroff. Respondent did not take any X-ray of tooth #19 before he extracted that tooth. The only X-rays available to Respondent were taken before the root canal was performed on that tooth in March 1995. Respondent also did not order any laboratory tests. Based on his use of ART, Respondent concluded that the following areas of C. C.'s body were compromised: tonsils, heart, spleen, pancreas, liver, gall bladder, large intestines, and pubic. Using ART, Respondent concluded that C. C.'s tooth #3 and tooth #19 had become toxic. Respondent also concluded that the following homeopathic remedies should be used to treat C. C.: Notakehl, Pefrakehl, and Arthrokehlan. Notakehl is a fungal remedy derived from Penicillum chrysogenum. Arthrokehlan is a bacterial remedy derived from Propionibacterium acnes. Prefakehl is a fungal remedy derived from Candida parapsilosis. 4/ Respondent told C. C. that the root canals that had been performed on tooth #3 and tooth #19 contained toxins and were blocking her recovery. He also told her that the removal of her root canal teeth and any toxic area around the root canal teeth should be given higher priority than the replacement of her amalgams. Respondent told C. C. that he could not help her if she did not have her two root canal teeth extracted. Respondent did not offer C. C. any other options because he did not think any other option existed. There was a conflict in the evidence as to whether C. C. consented to the extraction and treatment with the Sanum remedies. That conflict is resolved by finding that Respondent adequately explained to C. C. how he intended to extract the two teeth and what she could expect following the extractions. Although C. C. did not ask to have those two teeth extracted, she clearly agreed to have the extractions. It is further found that C. C. knowingly agreed to Respondent's proposed treatment with the Sanum remedies. C. C. knew about the Sanum remedies and how Respondent was going to use them to treat her. Much of the evidence presented by Respondent related to ART and the manner it was being used by practitioners in December 1995. The undersigned has carefully reviewed and considered that evidence. The undersigned has also reviewed and considered the evidence presented by Petitioner. The following findings are made as to the use of ART in 1995. The Florida Dental Association, the American Medical Association, and the American Dental Association did not recognize ART as a reliable methodology for testing toxic conditions of the teeth. ART was not being taught in any dental school in Florida. ART was not being used by a respected minority of dentists in the United States to the extent it was used by Respondent. Petitioner established by clear and convincing evidence that the extent to which Respondent relied on that methodology in evaluating this patient exceeded any acceptable use of ART in 1995 and constituted practice below the standard of care as alleged in Count VI of the Amended Administrative Complaint. Because of his over-reliance on ART, Respondent's diagnosis was flawed, and there was insufficient justification for his subsequent treatment of the patient. 5/ On December 21, 1995, C. C. returned to Respondent for the extraction of tooth #3 and tooth #19. Respondent extracted the two teeth and removed bone in the vicinity of each tooth that he thought was necrotic, a procedure referred to as cavitation. Respondent testified that he encountered soft, mushy bone following the extractions. He removed hard bone in the extraction area with a small rotary bur. He removed soft tissue and bone with a curette. There was a conflict in the evidence as to whether Respondent was justified in removing bone surrounding the extraction sites. Based on Respondent's testimony and the depositions and dental records of C. C.'s dentists who treated her after Respondent, it is concluded that his decision to remove bone surrounding the extraction sites was within his clinical judgment. It should be noted, however, that Respondent's dental records provide no justification for this extensive removal of bone adjacent to the extraction sites. Following the extractions and cavitation procedures, Respondent injected the patient's mouth and face with Notakehl, Pefrakehl, and Arthrokelan. Prior to her visit to Respondent, C. C.'s teeth #5 and #17 had been extracted. Respondent injected the area where tooth #5 had been with the Sanum remedies using a stabident drill, a dental drill that is usually used to administer anesthesia. He also injected the Sanum remedies where tooth #17 had been. Following the extractions of teeth #3 and #19, Respondent irrigated the extraction wounds with the Sanum remedies. Respondent injected the right sphenopalatine ganglion area and the left and right otic ganglion areas, the superior origin and inferior origin pharyngeal constrictor muscles, and the submandibular ganglion with a one percent solution of Xylocaine that also contained drops of Notakehl. Respondent testified he used Xylocaine, an epidural grade anesthetic, as a carrier for Notakehl. Some of the injections were made into the oral cavity while others were made through the face. Consistent with homeopathic practice, Respondent believed that these injections would promote healing. Tooth #3 is located directly beneath the right maxillary sinus cavity. From the X-rays available to him, Respondent knew that the root canal material that had been used to fill that tooth was very close to the thin membrane that protects the sinus cavity. Following his extraction of tooth #3, Respondent did not determine whether the maxillary sinus membrane had been perforated during the extraction procedure. Petitioner established by clear and convincing testimony that this failure constituted practice below the standard of care as alleged in Count VI of the Amended Administrative Complaint. Following the extractions, Respondent placed some soft tissue back into the extraction sites, which covered a little bit of the socket, and he left a little bit of an opening for a clot to form to heal from the inside out. He sutured the area around the buccal bone, which he had reflected in order to remove the tooth. C. C. returned to Respondent on December 22, 23, 24, 27, 28, 29, 1995, and January 5 and 10, 1996. On December 22, 1995, Respondent checked the extraction sites and electrically stimulated the extraction sites using a process referred to as micro current. On December 23, 1995, Respondent checked the extraction sites, applied micro current to those sites, and injected a one percent solution of Xylocaine with drops of Notakehl into the right sphenopalatine ganglion, both otic ganglions, and the left submandibular ganglion. On December 24, 1995, Respondent applied micro current to the extraction sites and injected Sanum remedies into the area of the extraction sites. On December 27, 1995, C. C. telephoned Respondent to complain of pain in the area from which tooth #3 had been extracted. From what she told him, Respondent believed that C. C. had a perforated maxillary sinus. When he examined her on December 27, 1995, he confirmed that she had a sinus perforation. Respondent reopened the area he had sutured on December 21, 1995, cleaned out granulated tissue. 6/ He did a flap procedure, referred to as a plastic closure, where tissue was reflected from the cheek side of the gum and placed over the extraction site to the palate side. He thereafter injected the right otic ganglion and right sphenopalatine ganglion with a solution of one percent Xylocaine and Notakehl. Between December 28, 1995, and January 10, 1996, Respondent continued his homeopathic treatment of C. C. combined with the micro current procedure. Respondent did not treat C. C. after January 10, 1996. C. C. knew when she agreed to the extractions that she would have to have bridges for the areas of the extractions. Those two bridges were inserted after she left Respondent's care. Petitioner asserted that Respondent practiced below the standard of care by failing to appropriately close the sinus perforation on December 27, 1995. That assertion is rejected. On January 18, 1996, James Medlock, D.D.S. examined C. C. at his dental office in West Palm Beach, Florida. C. C. was not experiencing difficulty with the flap procedure Respondent had performed on December 27, 1995, when she was seen by Dr. Medlock. Gary Verigan, D.D.S., treated C. C. at his dental office in California between February 1996 and May 1997. Richard T. Hansen, D.D.S., treated C. C. at his dental office in California between May 1997 and November 1999. The dental records of Dr. Medlock, Dr. Verigan, and Dr. Hansen for C. C. are in evidence as Joint Exhibits 1, 3 and 4, respectively. The depositions of Dr. Medlock and Dr. Hansen are in evidence. Dr. Hansen re-opened the area of the maxillary sinus that Respondent had closed with the flap procedure and found that bone had not re-generated in that area. Dr. Hansen believed that Respondent was not the cause of the problems for which he treated C. C. There was insufficient evidence to establish that the subsequent dental problems encountered by C. C. were caused by the extraction, cavitation, or flap procedure performed by Respondent in December 1995. Petitioner did not establish by clear and convincing evidence that Respondent's closure of the sinus perforation on December 27, 1995, constituted practice below the standard of care. Respondent did not have malpractice insurance or proof of financial security at the time that he treated C. C. He did not have proof of financial security until March 13, 1997, when he obtained an irrevocable letter of credit from Palm Beach National Bank and Trust to bring himself in compliance with Petitioner's Rule 64B5-17.011, Florida Administrative Code. 7/ This irrevocable letter of credit was current at the time of the final hearing. Respondent is a dentist who treats people who are chronically ill. Respondent's use of ART and homeopathic remedies are clearly unconventional and can, in Respondent's own words, cause a lot of harm if he is not careful. Under the facts of this case, his failure to have malpractice insurance or proof of financial responsibility while practicing alternative dentistry on high-risk patients is found to be an especially egregious violation of Rule 64B5-17.011, Florida Administrative Code. His subsequent compliance with that Rule is not viewed by the undersigned as being a mitigating factor. Petitioner established by clear and convincing evidence that Respondent failed to keep adequate dental records in violation of Section 466.028(1)(m), Florida Statutes, as alleged in Count II of the Amended Administrative Complaint. Respondent's medical history for the patient is incomplete. Although Respondent testified he did not take X-rays because of the patient's history of radiation poisoning, his medical history does not reflect that history. Respondent did not chart C. C.'s teeth, which is a routine practice. His description of his examination was vague, his findings were vague, and his proposed treatment plan was vague. His records did not reflect that he had viewed X-rays of the patient, did not reflect that Notakehl was injected with Xylocaine, and did not reflect the anesthetic that was used to numb the mouth during the extraction. The most serious deficiency is that his records provide no justification for the extraction of two teeth or for the cavitation procedures that followed, a basic requirement of Section 466.028(1)(m), Florida Statutes. There was a conflict in the evidence as to whether Respondent's use of the Sanum remedies constituted practice below the standard of care or experimentation. Petitioner did not establish that the practice of homeopathy is per se below the standard of care or that the use of homeopathic remedies in this case constituted experimentation. Respondent established that the three Sanum remedies he administered to C. C. are recognized homeopathic remedies, and he also established that the manner in which he administered these remedies was consistent with homeopathic practice. The conflict in the evidence is resolved by finding that Petitioner did not prove by clear and convincing evidence that Respondent's use of the homeopathic remedies constituted practice below the standard of care or experimentation. 8/
Recommendation Based on the foregoing Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law, it is RECOMMENDED that Petitioner enter a final order finding Respondent guilty of the violations alleged in Counts I, IV, and VI of the Amended Administrative Complaint. For the violation of Section 466.028(1)(m), Florida Statutes (Count I), Respondent's licensure should be placed on probation for a period of two years with the requirement that he take appropriate continuing education courses pertaining to record-keeping. For the violation of Rule 64B5-17.011, Florida Administrative Code (Count IV), Respondent's license should be suspended for a period of one year to be followed by a period of probation for a period of five years. For the violation of Section 466.028(1)(x), Florida Statutes (Count VI), Respondent's license should be suspended for a period of one year to be followed by a period of probation for a period of five years. It is further RECOMMENDED that Respondent be reprimanded for each violation and assessed an administrative fine in the amount of $3,000 for each violation, for a total of $9,000. It is further recommended that the suspension of licensure RECOMMENDED for Counts IV and VI and all periods of probation run concurrently. It is further RECOMMENDED that all other charges be dismissed. DONE AND ENTERED this 15th day of August, 2001, in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida. CLAUDE B. ARRINGTON Administrative Law Judge Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-3060 (850) 488-9675 SUNCOM 278-9675 Fax Filing (850) 921-6847 www.doah.state.fl.us Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 15th day of August, 2001.
The Issue Whether Ronald M. Marini, D.M.D., P.A. (Respondent), received Medicaid overpayments that the Agency for Health Care Administration is entitled to recover; and whether sanctions and costs should be imposed against Respondent.
Findings Of Fact The Medicaid program (Medicaid) is a federal and state partnership that funds health care services for qualified individuals. Petitioner is the state agency charged with administering Medicaid in Florida. Petitioner is legally authorized to monitor the activities of Medicaid providers and to recover “overpayments.” Overpayments include reimbursement for services that are not medically necessary, as verified by records existing at the time of service. Petitioner is also empowered to impose sanctions and recover costs against offending providers. During all times relevant hereto, Respondent was a Florida Medicaid provider authorized to provide dental care to Medicaid beneficiaries and to receive reimbursement for covered services. The dental practice of Ronald M. Marini, D.M.D., P.A., is owned by Ronald M. Marini, D.M.D. Dr. Marini has continuously practiced dentistry since graduating in 1967 from the University of Pittsburgh School of Dental Medicine. Dr. Marini’s practice focuses primarily on the treatment of children who have dental coverage through Medicaid. Dr. Marini is not board-certified in any specialty. Pursuant to what is commonly referred to as the “pay- and-chase” system, Petitioner pays Medicaid providers under an honor system for services rendered to Medicaid recipients. If Petitioner subsequently determines that the provider was paid for services rendered which were not in compliance with Medicaid requirements, then Petitioner seeks reimbursement from the provider. The Medicaid Provider Agreement is a voluntary contract between Petitioner and a Medicaid provider. Paragraph 3 of the Medicaid Provider Agreement states that “[t]he provider agrees to comply with local, state, and federal laws, as well as rules, regulations, and statements of policy applicable to the Medicaid program, including the Medicaid Provider Handbooks issued by AHCA.” During the audit period, Respondent was an enrolled Medicaid provider and had a valid Medicaid Provider Agreement with Petitioner. By correspondence to Respondent dated February 27, 2014, Petitioner requested records related to claims billed to Medicaid by Respondent for the audit period March 1, 2010, through August 31, 2012. Respondent provided documents in response to Petitioner’s request for records. Petitioner completed a review of the records that Respondent submitted, and on July 9, 2014, issued a Preliminary Audit Report (PAR). Petitioner advised in the PAR that it believed Respondent was overpaid in the amount of $590,008.15. In response to the PAR, Respondent submitted additional information to the Agency. After receipt and evaluation of Respondent’s additional information, Petitioner issued its FAR finding that Respondent was overpaid $590,008.15 during the audit period (later reduced to $513,246.91). The FAR also informed Respondent that Petitioner was imposing a fine of $118,001.63 as a sanction for violation of Florida Administrative Code Rule 59G-9.070(7)(e), and was seeking reimbursement of costs in the amount of $2,223.64. The FAR states six grounds on which Petitioner seeks to recoup monies paid to Respondent, and provides as follows: The 2007 and 2011 Dental Services Coverage and Limitations Handbooks, page 2-2, specify that Medicaid reimburses for services that are individualized, specific, consistent with symptoms or confirmed diagnosis of the illness or injury under treatment, not in excess of the recipient's needs, and reflect the level of services that can be safely furnished. A review of your records by a peer consultant revealed that the level of service for some claims submitted was not supported by the documentation. The appropriate code was applied and the payment adjusted. Payments made to you for these services, in excess of the adjusted amount, are considered an overpayment. The 2008 Florida Medicaid Provider General Handbook, pages 5-8 and 2-57, defines incomplete records as records that lack documentation that all requirements or conditions for service provision have been met. A review of your records revealed that documentation for some services for which you billed and received payment was incomplete or not provided. Payments made to you for these services are considered an overpayment. The 2008 Florida Medicaid Provider General Handbook, page 5-4, states that when presenting a claim for payment under the Medicaid program, a provider has an affirmative duty to present a claim for goods and services that are medically necessary. A review of your records revealed that the medical necessity for some claims submitted was not supported by the documentation. Payments made to you for these services are considered an overpayment. The 2008 Florida Medicaid Provider General Handbook, page 5-4, requires that when presenting a claim for payment under the Medicaid program, a provider has an affirmative duty to present a claim that is true and accurate and is for goods and services that have actually been furnished to the recipient. A review of your records revealed that some services were double billed. Payments made to you for these services are considered an overpayment. The 2008 Florida Medicaid Provider General Handbook, page 5-4, requires that when presenting a claim for payment under the Medicaid program, a provider has an affirmative duty to present a claim that is true and accurate and is for goods and services that have actually been furnished to the recipient. A review of your records revealed that some services rendered were erroneously coded. The appropriate code was applied and the payment adjusted, if applicable. Payments made to you for these services, in excess of the adjusted amount, are considered an overpayment. The 2007 and 2011 Dental Services Coverage and Limitations Handbooks, pages 2- 34 and 2-35 respectively, limit reimbursement for restorative services to essential services necessary to restore and maintain dental health; one restoration per tooth surface except for the occlusal surface of permanent maxillary 1st and 2nd molars; one resin restoration for a mesial or distal lesion; and one posterior one-surface resin restoration every three years per tooth number or letter per tooth surface. A review of your dental records revealed that you billed and received payment for a restoration in excess of the maximum. Payment made to you for this service is considered an overpayment. Mark Kuhl, D.M.D., was offered and accepted as Petitioner's expert in the areas of rendering dental care and dental medical necessity with respect to Medicaid overpayment cases. Dr. Kuhl was also offered and accepted as a peer reviewer pursuant to section 409.9131, Florida Statutes. Since 1985, Dr. Kuhl has been continuously licensed to practice dentistry in the State of Florida. Dr. Kuhl is not board-certified in any specialty and operates a general dentistry practice where he treats pediatric patients. W. Michael Ingalls, D.D.S., was offered and accepted as Respondent's “expert in dentistry with a focus on pediatric dentistry.” Dr. Ingalls was not, however, recognized as an expert as to matters pertaining to Medicaid coding for services rendered. Dr. Ingalls has practiced dentistry continuously since graduating from the University of Washington School of Dentistry in 1984. Dr. Ingalls has been board-certified by the American Board of Pediatric Dentistry since 1997. Dr. Ingalls has owned and operated his own pediatric dental practice in Lake Mary, Florida, since 1987. During the audit period, there were two versions of the Florida Medicaid Provider General Handbook in effect. As applied to the instant dispute, there are no material differences between the two General Handbooks so, unless otherwise indicated, they will collectively be referred to as the General Handbook. During the audit period, there were also two versions of The Florida Medicaid Provider Dental Services Coverage and Limitations Handbook in effect. As applied to the instant dispute, there are no material differences between the two Dental Handbooks so, unless otherwise indicated, they will collectively be referred to as the Dental Handbook. Missing or Incomplete Documentation The General Handbook provides, in part, as follows: When presenting a claim for payment under the Medicaid program, a provider has an affirmative duty to . . . present a claim . . . that is for goods and services that . . . [a]re documented by records made at the time the goods or services were provided demonstrating the medical necessity for the goods or services rendered. Medicaid goods or services are excessive or not medically necessary unless both the medical basis and the specific need for them are fully and properly documented in the recipient’s medical record. The General Handbook also provides that “[m]edical records must state the necessity for and the extent of services provided [and] the following requirements may vary according to the service rendered: Description of what was done during the visit; History; Physical assessment; Chief Complaint on each visit; Diagnostic tests and results; Diagnosis; Treatment plan, including prescription; Medications, supplies, scheduling frequency for follow-up or other services; Progress reports, treatment rendered; The author of each (medical record) entry must be identified and must authenticate his entry by signature, written initials or computer entry; Dates of service; and Referrals to other services. The General Handbook does not define what constitutes a medical record. The General Handbook further provides that a Medicaid provider has an affirmative duty to provide services “in accord with applicable provisions of all Medicaid rules, regulations, handbooks, and policies and in accordance with federal, state and local law.” For the applicable audit period, section 466.018(3), Florida Statutes (2011), required, in part, that “[e]very dentist shall maintain written dental records and medical history records which justify the course of treatment of the patient.” Additionally, section 466.028(1)(m) subjects a dentist to disciplinary action for “[f]ailing to keep written dental records and medical history records justifying the course of treatment of the patient.” Section 466.018(3) makes clear that dental records and medical history records must justify, or explain why, a particular course of treatment was undertaken by a dental care provider. Respondent utilizes software to capture the services provided to his patients. The software has a “patient notes master” section, which allows the user to post narrative information about a patient, including information related to patient evaluation and insurance claims status. The software also has a “patient chart” section which reflects information such as dates of service, a description of services provided (with Current Dental Terminology codes, hereinafter CDT code(s)), the tooth and surface involved, and the treatment status of the affected tooth. The patient chart section also has a colorized tooth chart that visually depicts information found in the description, tooth, and surface sections of the patient chart. The “patient notes master” section and all parts of the “patient chart,” collectively and substantively, comprise the patient medical record contemplated by the General and Dental Handbooks, respectively. There is nothing in Petitioner’s rules, regulations, General or Dental Handbooks, or section 466.018(3), that requires patient treatment information to be gleaned only from the patient notes section of a patient’s dental record. Recipient 1 (Not in Patient Notes) On January 14, 2011, patient K.A., who at the time was an existing patient, was treated by Respondent. According to the dental records, Respondent performed a “periodic oral evaluation [CDT code 0120],” took several x-rays, and removed “plaque, calculus and stains from the tooth structures in the primary and transitional dentition [CDT code 1120].” The results of the evaluation revealed that K.A. had “decay” in teeth “S” and “A.” K.A. was given a topical fluoride treatment (CDT code 1203) and oral hygiene instructions (CDT code 1330). Petitioner denied treatment related to CDT codes 1203 and 1330 on the basis that there is no documentation in the “patient notes” to warrant payment for these services. While it is true that the “patient notes” portion of Respondent’s dental record for K.A. offers no justification or otherwise documents the need for CDT codes 1203 and 1330, the “patient chart” portion of K.A.’s dental record clearly documents that these services were provided to K.A. Payment for these services should be allowed. On February 15, 2012, K.A. was treated by Respondent. According to the dental record, Respondent performed a “periodic oral evaluation [CDT code 0120],” took several X-rays, and removed “plaque, calculus and stains from the tooth structures in the primary and transitional dentition [CDT code 1120].” The results of the evaluation revealed that K.A. had “decay” in teeth 14, 19 and 30. K.A. was given a topical fluoride treatment (CDT code 1203) and oral hygiene instructions (CDT code 1330). Petitioner denied treatment related to CDT codes 0120, 1203 and 1330 on the basis that there is no documentation in the “patient notes” to warrant payment for these services. While it is true that the “patient notes” portion of Respondent’s dental record for K.A. offers no justification or otherwise documents the need for CDT codes 0120, 1203 and 1330, the “patient chart” portion of K.A.’s dental record clearly documents that these services were provided by Respondent to K.A. Payment for these services should be allowed. On March 9, 2012, K.A. was treated by Respondent. According to the patient chart, Respondent applied a resin-based composite to K.A.’s teeth 14, 19 and 30 (CDT codes 2391 and 2392). Petitioner denied payment for treatment related to these services on the basis that there is no documentation in the “patient notes” to warrant payment. While it is true that the “patient notes” portion of Respondent’s dental record for K.A. fails to mention that these services were provided, the “patient chart” portion of K.A.’s dental record clearly documents that these services were provided by Respondent to K.A. and payment for these services should be allowed. Recipient 2 (Not in Patient Notes) On April 5, 2011, E.B. was treated by Respondent. According to the dental record, Respondent performed a “comprehensive oral evaluation [CDT code 0145]” and removed “plaque, calculus and stains from the tooth structures in the primary and transitional dentition [CDT code 1120].” E.B. was given a topical fluoride treatment (CDT code 1203) and oral hygiene instructions (CDT code 1330). Petitioner denied payment for the fluoride treatment on the basis that there is no documentation in the “patient notes” for these services. While it is true that the “patient notes” portion of Respondent’s dental record for E.B. fails to mention the fluoride treatment, the “patient chart” portion of E.B.’s dental record clearly documents that these services were provided by Respondent to E.B. and payment for these services should be allowed. Recipient 11 (Not in Patient Notes) On April 26 and May 23, 2012, P.D. was treated by Respondent. According to the dental record, Respondent, during these visits, applied “resin-based composite – two surface, posterior [CDT code 2393],” to the distal and occlusal surfaces of teeth 4 and 5, and the mesial and occlusal surfaces of tooth 3. Petitioner denied payment for treatment related to these services on the basis that there is no documentation in the “patient notes” to warrant payment. While it is true that the “patient notes” portion of Respondent’s dental record for P.D. fails to mention that these services were provided, the “patient chart” portion of P.D.’s dental record clearly documents that these services were provided and payment for these services should be allowed. Recipient 20 (Not in Record) On February 7, 2012, M.J. was treated by Respondent. According to the dental record, Respondent performed an “extraction, erupted tooth or exposed root [CDT code 7140]” for teeth D and E. Petitioner denied payment for treatment related to these services on the basis that there is no documentation in the patient record to warrant payment. The “patient chart” portion of M.J.’s dental record clearly documents that these services were provided and payment for the same should be allowed. Recipient 23 (Not in Patient Notes) On July 5, 2012, M.M. was treated by Respondent. According to the dental record, Respondent applied a “resin-based composite – three surfaces, anterior [CDT code 2393]” to teeth E and F. The dental record also reflects that behavior management techniques (CDT code 9920) were applied during the procedure. Petitioner denied payment for treatment related to these services on the basis that there is no documentation in the “patient notes” to warrant payment. While it is true that the “patient notes” portion of Respondent’s dental record for M.M. fails to mention that these services were provided, the “patient chart” portion of M.M.’s dental record clearly documents that these services were provided and payment for these services should therefore be allowed. Recipient 24 (Not in Patient Notes) On October 19, 2010, A.M. was treated by Respondent. According to the dental record, Respondent applied a “resin-based composite – two surfaces, posterior [CDT code 2392],” to teeth A and J. The dental record also shows that a “pulp cap – indirect [CDT code 3120]” was applied to tooth A. Petitioner denied payment for treatment related to the application of the pulp cap on the basis that there is no documentation of the same in the patient “notes.” While it is true that the “patient notes” portion of Respondent’s dental record for A.M. fails to mention the application of a pulp cap, the “patient chart” portion of A.M.’s dental record clearly documents that this service was provided and payment for should therefore be allowed. Recipient 25 (Not in Patient Notes) On February 16, 2011, I.O. was treated by Respondent. According to the dental record, Respondent applied a “resin-based composite – two surfaces, posterior [CDT code 2392],” to the occlusal/lingual and distal/buccal surfaces of tooth A. Petitioner denied payment for these services on the basis that there is no documentation of the same in the “patient notes.” While it is true that the “patient notes” portion of Respondent’s dental record for I.O. fails to mention that these services were provided, the “patient chart” portion of I.O.’s dental record clearly documents that these services were provided and payment for the same should be allowed. Recipient 26 (Not in Patient Notes) On November 1, 2010, C.R. was treated by Respondent. According to the dental record, Respondent, during these visits, applied “resin-based composite – one surface, posterior [CDT code 2391],” to the occlusal surfaces of teeth L and S, and both the occlusal and buccal surfaces of teeth K and T. Petitioner denied payment for treatment related to the application of the resin- based composite to the occlusal surface for tooth S on the basis that there is no documentation of this service in the “patient notes.” While it is true that the “patient notes” portion of Respondent’s dental record for C.R. fails to mention that this service was provided, the “patient chart” portion of C.R.’s dental record clearly documents that this service was provided and payment for the same should be allowed. Services Billed at Lower Level The Dental Handbook provides in part that “[a] comprehensive oral evaluation is used by a dentist when evaluating a patient comprehensively. This applies to new patients and to established patients who have a significant change in health conditions or who have been absent from treatment for three or more years.” The Dental handbook also states that “[a] provider may only be reimbursed for a comprehensive oral evaluation once every three years for the same recipient.” Respondent contends that Petitioner erroneously adjusted payment for this service because the comprehensive evaluations were conducted more than three years apart. Recipient 20 – J.M. On February 2, 2012, Respondent treated J.M. For this service date, Respondent billed for a comprehensive oral evaluation (CDT code 0150). According to J.M.’s dental record, Respondent previously performed a comprehensive evaluation on January 5, 2009. J.M.’s dental record also indicates that between these dates, Respondent treated her on seven different occasions. While it is true that the time between comprehensive evaluations is more than three years, Petitioner properly adjusted payment for the February 2, 2012, service because J.M. was not absent from treatment during this interval. Recipient 22 – S.M. On July 18, 2011, Respondent treated S.M. For this service date, Respondent billed for a comprehensive oral evaluation (CDT code 0150). According to S.M.’s dental record, Respondent previously performed a comprehensive evaluation on January 14, 2011. Petitioner adjusted the July 18, 2011, service to a “periodic oral evaluation [CDT code 0120],” which reimburses at a lower rate. Respondent does not dispute that Petitioner properly adjusted the reimbursement rate for this service. Not Medically Necessary Applicable Medicaid regulations require that “medical necessity” be documented by specific records made at the time the services were provided, and that the records fully identify the medical basis and the need for the services. In other words, a provider must document the rationale for conducting a particular service at the time of making the decision to perform the same. Petitioner asserts that Respondent failed to submit sufficient documentation to establish that the disputed charges were for "medically necessary" services. FAR Finding No. 3 involves CDT codes 0240, 0250 and 0260. These codes reflect services for radiograph/diagnostic imaging procedures that “[s]hould be taken only for clinical reasons as determined by the patient’s dentist.” According to the Dental Handbook, these radiographs will not, however, be reimbursed for caries (decay) detection. The Dental Handbook also states that “[r]eimbursement for a complete series of intraoral radiographs is limited to once in a three (3) year period, per recipient.” Petitioner asserts that Respondent failed to establish that the use of CDT codes 0240, 0250, and 0260 was medically necessary for certain claims related to patients 1, 5, 8, 9, 10, 14, 20, 22, 26, 31, and 32. Respondent contends that services related to the disputed charges were necessary to monitor growth and development and screen for oral pathology because children’s dentition is rapidly changing during early adolescence. In other words, Respondent suggests that medical necessity exists for the radiographs essentially for no other reason than because the child is of a particular age. According to Dr. Kuhl, the ADA Guidelines, which are authoritative and instructive, provide that for radiographs to be medically necessary there should be sufficient documentation in the dental record to indicate the specific, individualized indication for why Respondent billed for the radiograph procedure and any results that were obtained pursuant to that procedure. Dr. Kuhl testified that Respondent’s dental records for each of the disputed claims provide no indication for or need as to why the X-rays were taken. According to Respondent’s expert, Dr. Ingalls, the standard of care for taking occlusal X-rays is that they are to be taken “when there was decay present or trauma had occurred” and that they are not taken simply as screening X-rays. The following testimony from Dr. Ingalls is instructive: Q: Okay. If you were to take an intraoral occlusal radiograph, would you document why you took it? A: I would have a description of what was found from taking it, which would say why you took it. You’d have a reason to take it to begin with and then you write a comment of what was found. Q: And do you write that in the narrative form? A: I have it in the narrative form. Sometimes, again, if I gave you an example, a child comes who’s fallen and hit their front teeth on the floor at home and displaced or broken a tooth or even the parent was concerned with bleeding from the gumline, I would take an occlusal radiograph to record what was there, partly to assure that there was nothing that required treatment and also to provide a baseline for future comparison where I would take future occlusal radiographs to monitor any changes over time. And I would have a record of that traumatic incident, every part of it; where it occurred, how it occurred, all of the examination findings around it on a trauma evaluation and the outcome of the findings in the x-ray and any treatment plan and instructions given to the parent. Q: Would you say that approach to medical records is standard? A: Within my specialty, that is the guideline that is taught to us that we follow so that we do not miss anything. Hearing Transcript pp. 411-413. The opinions of Dr. Kuhl and Dr. Inglass are consistent and provide that a medical basis and need for the X-rays at issue must be established and documented, and that the X-rays in question are not to be used as a screening device as suggested by Respondent. Recipient 1 Recipient 1, K.A., had four claims that were denied as to CDT codes 0240, 0250, and 0260. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of these claims. Recipient 5 Recipient 5, S.C., had a single claim that was denied as to CDT code 0240. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of this claim. Recipient 8 Recipient 8, D.C., had a single claim that was denied as to CDT code 0240. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of this claim. Recipient 9 Recipient 9, D.D., had two claims that were denied as to CDT code 0240. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of these claims. Recipient 10 Recipient 10, G.D., had two claims that were denied as to CDT code 0240. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of these claims. Recipient 14 Recipient 14, E.E., had a single claim that was denied as to CDT code 0240. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of this claim. Recipient 20 Recipient 20, M.J., had six claims that were denied as to CDT codes 0240, 0250, and 0260. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of these claims. Recipient 22 Recipient 22, K.A., had two claims that were denied. Each claim was billed using CDT code 0250. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of these claims. Recipient 26 Recipient 26, C.R., had a single claim that was denied as to CDT code 0240. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of this claim. Recipient 31 Recipient 31, J.R., had two claims that were denied. Each claim was billed using CDT code 0240. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of these claims. Recipient 32 Recipient 32, J.R., had a single claim that was denied as to CDT code 0240. The dental records for this recipient provided no indication why the X-rays needed to be taken. Accordingly, Petitioner properly denied payment of this claim. Erroneous Coding According to the Dental Handbook, “[s]ealants are applied to pits and fissures of permanent teeth to prevent caries [and] [t]he enamel surface of the tooth may be mechanically or chemically[,] or mechanically and chemically prepared.” The Dental Handbook also states that “[s]ealants applied to deciduous (primary) teeth will not be reimbursed by Medicaid.” CDT code D1351 (sealant – per tooth) describes this service as “[mechanically and/or chemically prepared enamel surface sealed to prevent decay.” As for resin restorations, the Dental Handbook provides that “Medicaid may reimburse for . . . [r]esin restorations . . . [and that] [t]he fee for resin restorations includes local anesthesia, tooth preparation, routine lining and base, polishing, and the use of any adhesive, such as amalgam bonding agents.” As a restriction on the use of resin restorations, the Handbook provides that “[r]esin restorations may be used to restore carious lesions that extend into the dentin or areas that are deeply eroded into dentin.” CDT codes 2391/2392 provide that the resin composite is “[u]sed to restore a carious lesion into the dentin or a deeply eroded area into the dentin.” In comparing sealant and resin restoration services, it is evident that sealants are for the enamel surface of the tooth whereas restorations, when undertaken to eliminate carious lesions, are appropriate only when the lesions extend into the dentin. In understanding the sealant and restoration provisions of the Dental Handbook, it is also evident that in order to be reimbursed for either CDT code 2391 or 2392 there must be sufficient justification of carious intrusion into the dentin and in the absence of such justification it may be appropriate to adjust the service to CDT code 1351, unless, of course, the service relates to a deciduous tooth. FAR finding No. 5 involves CDT codes 2391, 2392 and 1351 and applies to recipients 8, 13, 19, 22, 23, 24, 26, 28, 29, and 32. Petitioner, based on Dr. Kuhl’s analysis, adjusted reimbursement for CDT codes D2391 and D2392 downward to CDT code D1351 when the following criteria were present: X-rays did not show any decay, Respondent’s dental record for the recipient did not specifically indicate that any decay was removed, Respondent’s dental record for the recipient stated that only a “flowable” resin was used, and Respondent’s dental record for the recipient did not indicate that anesthesia was used. Dr. Kuhl evaluated the criteria and, when all four were met, he concluded that it was very likely that any decay present did not extend into the dentin as required for CDT code descriptions and applicable Florida Medicaid Handbooks. Dr. Kuhl’s protocol for identifying claims that do not meet the requirements for codes 2391 and 2392 is consistent with the requirements of Florida Medicaid Handbooks and is credited. There are, however, instances where Dr. Kuhl made downward adjustments for claims when, according to the requirements of the Dental Handbook, the claims should not have been paid. Recipient 8 For recipient 8, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code 2391 or 2392 for claims 6 through 11. This opinion is credited. Dr. Kuhl erred, however, in adjusting these claims to CDT code 1351 because the teeth involved in these claims (A, J, K, L, S, and T) are deciduous teeth that are not eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied. In accordance with the Dental Handbook, these claims should be denied. Recipient 13 For recipient 13, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code 2391 or 2392 for claims 8 through 13, 18, 20, 21, and 24 through 26. This opinion is credited. Dr. Kuhl erred, however, in adjusting claims 8, 9, 12, 13, and 24 through 26 to CDT code 1351 because the teeth involved in these claims (A, I, J, K, S, and T) are deciduous teeth that are not eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied. In accordance with the Dental Handbook, these claims should be denied. As for claims 10, 11, 18, 20, and 21, Dr. Kuhl correctly adjusted these claims downward to CDT code 1351 because the permanent teeth involved in these claims are eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied under appropriate circumstances. Recipient 19 For recipient 19, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code 2391 or 2392 for claims 1 through 5. This opinion is credited. Dr. Kuhl erred, however, in adjusting these claims to CDT code 1351 because the teeth involved in these claims (A, B, J, K, and T) are deciduous teeth that are not eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied. In accordance with the Dental Handbook, these claims should be denied. Recipient 22 For recipient 22, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code D2391 or D2392 for claims 10, 11, 13, 15, and 16. This opinion is credited. As for claims 10, 11, 13, and 16, Dr. Kuhl correctly adjusted these claims downward to CDT code 1351 because the permanent teeth involved in these claims are eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied under appropriate circumstances. Claim 15 involved tooth 20, which is not identified in the Dental Handbook as a tooth that is eligible for reimbursement when a sealant is applied. Accordingly, claim 15 should be denied. Recipient 23 For recipient 23, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code D2391 or D2392 for claims 13 through 15, and 17. This opinion is credited. Dr. Kuhl erred, however, in adjusting these claims to CDT code 1351 because the teeth involved in these claims (K, L, S, and T) are deciduous teeth that are not eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied. In accordance with the Dental Handbook, these claims should be denied. Recipient 24 For recipient 24, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code 2391 or 2392 for claims 13, 17, and 21. This opinion is credited. Dr. Kuhl erred, however, in adjusting claims 13 and 17 to CDT code 1351 because the teeth involved in these claims (A and J) are deciduous teeth that are not eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied. In accordance with the Dental Handbook, these claims should be denied. As for claim 21, Dr. Kuhl correctly adjusted this claim downward from CDT code 2392 to CDT code D2940 because the patient record reflects that a sedative filling was applied and not a resin-based composite restoration as billed. Recipient 26 For recipient 26, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code 2391 or 2392 for claims 9 through 11. This opinion is credited. Dr. Kuhl erred, however, in adjusting these claims to CDT code 1351 because the teeth involved (K, L, and T) are deciduous teeth that are not eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied. In accordance with the Dental Handbook, these claims should be denied. Recipient 28 For recipient 28, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code 2391 or 2392 for claims 8, 9, and 11. This opinion is credited. Dr. Kuhl correctly adjusted these claims downward to CDT code 1351 because the permanent teeth involved (3, 14, and 30) are eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied under appropriate circumstances. Recipient 29 For recipient 29, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code 2391 or 2392 for claims 4, 5, 8, and 10. This opinion is credited. Dr. Kuhl erred, however, in adjusting claims 8 and 10 to CDT code 1351 because the teeth involved in these claims (K and T) are deciduous teeth that are not eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied. In accordance with the Dental Handbook, these claims should be denied. As for claims 4 and 5, Dr. Kuhl correctly adjusted these claims downward to CDT code 1351 because the permanent teeth involved in these claims (3 and 19) are eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied under appropriate circumstances. Recipient 32 For recipient 32, Dr. Kuhl determined that Respondent’s dental record for this patient does not support the use of either CDT code 2391 or 2392 for claims 9 through 12, 28, 30, and 32. This opinion is credited. Dr. Kuhl erred however in adjusting claims 11 and 32 to CDT code 1351 because the teeth involved in these claims (J and S) are deciduous teeth that are not eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied. In accordance with the Dental Handbook, these claims should be denied. As for claims 12 and 28, Dr. Kuhl correctly adjusted these claims downward to CDT code 1351 because the permanent teeth involved in these claims (14 and 30) are eligible for reimbursement when sealants are applied under appropriate circumstances. As for claim 30, Dr. Kuhl erred in adjusting this claim downward to CDT code 1351 because it involves tooth 30 which was addressed in claim 12. The Handbook provides that “[s]ealants may be reimbursed once per three years, per tooth.” The date of service for claim 12 is October 19, 2010, and the date of service for claim 30 is March 28, 2012. Claim 30 was not submitted more than three years after claim 12, and it should therefore be denied. Duplicate Claims Certain claims were denied by Petitioner as being duplicates of other claims. These claims relate to FAR finding No. 4, which involves CDT Codes 2391, 2392, and 1351. Recipient 8 For recipient 8, claims 12 and 13 were billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2391 for teeth K and T. As previously noted, Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that Respondent improperly used CDT code 2391 for services related to these teeth. Because tooth K was addressed in claim 8 (as previously discussed) and tooth T was addressed in claim 11 (as previously discussed), Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that claims 12 and 13 are duplicate claims that should be denied. Recipient 13 For recipient 13, claims 14 through 17, and 19, were billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2391 for teeth K, T, 3 and 30. As previously noted, Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that Respondent improperly used CDT code 2391 for services related to these teeth. Because tooth K was addressed in claim 12 (as previously discussed), tooth T was addressed in claim 13 (as previously discussed), tooth 3 was addressed in claim 18 (as previously discussed), and tooth 30 was addressed in claim 11 (as previously discussed), Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that claims 14 through 17, and 19 are duplicate claims that should be denied. Recipient 19 For recipient 19, claim 6 was billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2391 for tooth K. As previously noted, Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that Respondent improperly used CDT code 2391 for services related to this tooth. Because tooth K was addressed in claim 8 (as previously discussed), Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that this claim is a duplicate claim that should be denied. Recipient 22 For recipient 22, claims 12 and 14 were billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2392 for teeth 14 and 15. As previously noted, Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that Respondent improperly used CDT code 2391 for services related to these teeth. Because the patient record does not support the use of code 2391, it also does not support the use of code 2392. Because tooth 14 was addressed in claim 11 (as previously discussed) and tooth 15 was addressed in claim 13 (as previously discussed), Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that claims 12 and 14 are duplicates that should be denied. Recipient 23 For recipient 23, claim 16 was billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2391 for tooth T. As previously noted, Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that Respondent improperly used CDT code 2391 for services related to this tooth. Because tooth T was addressed in claim 15 (as previously discussed), Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that this claim is a duplicate that should be denied. Recipient 26 For recipient 26, claims 13 and 14 were billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2391 for teeth K and T. As previously noted, Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that Respondent improperly used CDT code 2391 for services related to these teeth. Because tooth K was addressed in claim 9 (as previously discussed) and tooth T was addressed in claim 10 (as previously discussed), Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that claims 13 and 14 are duplicates that should be denied. Recipient 28 For recipient 28, claim 10 was billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2391 for tooth 3. As previously noted, Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that Respondent improperly used CDT code 2391 for services related to this tooth. Because tooth 3 was addressed in claim 8 (as previously discussed), Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that this claim is a duplicate that should be denied. Recipient 29 For recipient 29, claims 6 and 7 were billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2392 for teeth 3 and 14. As previously noted, Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that Respondent improperly used CDT code 2391 for services related to these teeth. Because the patient record does not support the use of CDT code 2391, it also does not support the use of CDT code 2392. Because tooth 3 was addressed in claim 4 (as previously discussed) and tooth 14 was addressed in claim 15 (as previously discussed), Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that claims 6 and 7 are duplicates that should be denied. Recipient 32 For recipient 32, claims 13 and 31 were billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2391 for teeth 19 and 30, and claim 29 was billed and reimbursed under CDT code 2392 for tooth 14. As previously noted, Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that Respondent improperly used CDT code 2391 and 2392 for services related to these teeth. Because tooth 14 was addressed in claim 28 (as previously discussed) tooth 19 was addressed in claim 10 (as previously discussed), and tooth 30 was addressed in claims 12 and 30 (as previously discussed), Dr. Kuhl correctly opined that claims 13, 29, and 31 are duplicates that should be denied.
Recommendation Based on the foregoing Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law, it is RECOMMENDED that Petitioner, Agency for Health Care Administration, enter a final order that: Revises the Final Audit Report consistent with the Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law set forth herein; Recalculates the total overpayment consistent with the Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law set forth herein; Requires Respondent to pay interest at the statutorily mandated rate on the recalculated overpayment; and Requires Respondent to pay a fine in the amount of 20 percent of the recalculated overpayment. Pursuant to section 409.913(23)(a), Petitioner is entitled to recover all investigative, legal and expert witness costs. Petitioner has documented costs of $2,223.64, but advises that “[a]dditional costs have been incurred in preparing for and attending the final hearing.” Jurisdiction is retained to determine the amount of appropriate costs, if the parties are unable to agree. Within 30 days after entry of the final order, either party may file a request for a hearing on the amount. Failure to request a hearing within 30 days after entry of the final order shall be deemed to indicate that the issue of costs has been resolved. DONE AND ENTERED this 29th day of August, 2017, in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida. S LINZIE F. BOGAN Administrative Law Judge Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-3060 (850) 488-9675 Fax Filing (850) 921-6847 www.doah.state.fl.us Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 29th day of August, 2017.
The Issue The issue is whether the score that Respondent assigned to the Patient Amalgam Preparation section of the clinical part of Petitioner's June 2003 Florida Dental License Examination was arbitrary or capricious.
Findings Of Fact Petitioner took the June 2003 Florida Dental License Examination. A passing score for the clinical part of the examination is 3.0. Petitioner received a score of 2.9, so he failed the clinical part of the examination. Petitioner has challenged the grade of 2.0 that he received on the Patient Amalgam Preparation of the clinical part of the examination. The score of 2.0 is derived from averaging the 3s that Petitioner received from two evaluators and the 0 that he received from one evaluator. Petitioner challenges only the score of 0, and he needs two additional points to pass the clinical part of the examination. The administration of the clinical part of the dental examination requires Respondent to recruit and train numerous examiners and monitors, all of whom are experienced, licensed dentists. The training process includes standardization exercises designed to ensure that all examiners are applying the same scoring criteria. The evaluation of specific procedures are double-blind, with scoring sheets that identify candidates by test numbers, so examiners do not know the identity of the candidate whose procedures they are scoring. The section that is the subject of this case requires the candidate to demonstrate certain skills on a live patient. While working with the patient, the candidate is supervised by a monitor. When the candidate has completed the required dental work to his satisfaction, he so advises the monitor, who sends the patient to the dental examiners. For the section that is the subject of this case, three dental examiners examine the patient and score the procedure. These examiners do not communicate with each other, and each performs his or her examinations and scores the procedure in isolation from the other examiners. Communications between examiners and candidates are exclusively through monitor notes. For the section that is the subject of this case, the maximum possible score that a candidate may receive is a 5. Passing grades are 3, 4, or 5. Nonpassing grades are 0, 1, or A score of 3 indicates minimal competence. The Patient Amalgam Preparation section of the clinical part of the examination required Petitioner to remove caries from one tooth and prepare the tooth for restoration. These procedures are of obvious importance to dental health. Poor preparation of the tooth surface will probably result in the premature failure of the restoration. A restoration following incomplete removal of caries will probably result in ongoing disease, possibly resulting in the loss of the tooth. Written materials, as well as Respondent's rules, which are discussed below, require a 0 if caries remain, after the candidate has presented the patient as ready for restoration. Other criteria apply to the Patient Amalgam Preparation procedure, but this criterion is the only one of importance in this case. Examiners 207 and 394 each assigned Petitioner a 3 for this procedure, but Examiner 417 assigned him a 0. Examiners 207 and 394 noted some problems with the preparation of the tooth, but neither detected any caries. Examiner 417 detected caries and documented her finding, as required to do when scoring a 0. Examiner 207 has served as an examiner for 10 years and has conducted 15-20 evaluation examinations during this time. Examiner 417 graduated from dental school in 1979. Examiner 394 has been licensed in Florida since 1995 and has served as an examiner only three years. The instructions to examiners emphasize that they are to detect caries "exclusively" tactilely, not visually. Tactile detection of the stickiness characteristic of caries is more reliable than visual detection. For example, caries assumes the color of dentin as the decay approaches the dentin. Despite the requirement to detect caries by touch, not sight, Examiner 417 initially testified that she detected the caries by sight. Later in her testimony, she backtracked and stated that she was not sure if she felt it or saw it. Her earlier, more definitive testimony is credited; Examiner 417 never found caries by touch, only by sight. In DOAH Case No. 03-3998, Examiner 417 readily conceded that she must have missed the caries that another examiner had detected, inspiring little confidence in her caries-detection ability. In that case, her value as one of two dentists in the majority was insignificant, even though the majority finding prevailed. In this case, Examiner 417's role as the lone dentist who found caries is too great an evidentiary burden for her to bear. The vagueness of her testimony and her reliance upon visual caries-detection preclude a finding of caries in this patient. Three other additional factors undermine Examiner 417's finding of caries. First, Examiners 207 and 394 found no caries. Examiner 207 has considerable experience. Examiner 394 has less experience, but he was the lone evaluator in DOAH Case No. 03-3998 to detect calculus deep below the gums, proving that he is both meticulous and a demanding grader. Together, then, the findings of Examiners 207 and 394 of no caries carry much greater weight than the contrary finding of Examiner 417. Nor was it likely that Examiner 417 accidentally dislodged the caries. No evidence suggest that she was the first examiner to examine the patient, and her means of detecting caries was visual, not tactile. Second, the location of the caries in this case was directly in the center of the tooth. So located, it was difficult for Petitioner and Examiners 207 and 394 to miss. Third, by two monitors' notes, Petitioner twice obtained the evaluators' permission to expand the drilled area, due to the extensiveness of the caries, suggesting that Petitioner was devoting careful attention to the removal of all caries, even if it meant an atypical site preparation.
Recommendation It is RECOMMENDED that the Department of Health enter a final order granting Petitioner an additional two points on the clinical part of the June 2003 Florida Dental License Examination and determining that he has passed this part of the dental examination. DONE AND ENTERED this 27th day of February, 2004, in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida. S ROBERT E. MEALE Administrative Law Judge Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-3060 (850) 488-9675 SUNCOM 278-9675 Fax Filing (850) 921-6847 www.doah.state.fl.us Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 27th day of February, 2004. COPIES FURNISHED: R. S. Power, Agency Clerk Department of Health 4052 Bald Cypress Way, Bin A02 Tallahassee, Florida 32399-1701 William W. Large, General Counsel Department of Health 4052 Bald Cypress Way, BIN A02 Tallahassee, Florida 32399-1701 William H. Buckhalt, Executive Director Board of Dentistry Department of Health 4052 Bald Cypress Way, Bin C06 Tallahassee, Florida 32399-1701 James Randolph Quick Driftwood Plaza 2151 South U.S. Highway One Jupiter, Florida 33477 Cassandra Pasley Senior Attorney Department of Health Office of the General Counsel 4052 Bald Cypress Way, Bin A02 Tallahassee, Florida 32399-1703
The Issue The issue in this case is whether Petitioner should have received a passing score on the June 2001 Florida Dental Licensure Examination, notwithstanding Respondent’s determination that he failed the test.
Findings Of Fact The evidence presented at final hearing established the facts that follow. Siegel, who graduated from dental school in 1999, took the June 2001 Florida Dental Licensure Examination (the “Exam”), which was administered by the Department on June 2 through June 5, 2001. The Exam had two parts, a Clinical Part and a Laws and Rules Part. The Clinical Part was further divided into ten sections, each of which consisted of a separate clinical procedure. The minimum passing score on the Laws and Rules Part was 75.00; on the Clinical Part, a minimum score of 3.00 was required to pass. As calculated by The Department, Siegel scored 70.00 and 1.49, respectively, on the two parts. Thus, according to The Department, Siegel failed both parts of the Exam. Each candidate’s performance on the Clinical Part of the Exam was scored independently by three examiners chosen by the Department.1 These examiners were not informed of any candidate’s identity, nor were the candidates told the examiners’ names; they were not permitted to speak directly to one another while the Exam was being administered. The examiners who graded Siegel’s clinical performance had successfully completed standardization training.2 Additionally, the Department determined, as part of a routine post-Exam statistical review of examiner performance, that these particular examiners were reliable in terms of their consistency in applying the proper grading criteria.3 To determine a candidate’s overall score on the Clinical Part of the Exam, the Department first computed the average of the three examiners’ raw scores for each individual procedure. Each average score was then adjusted using the percentages prescribed in Rule 64B5-2.013, Florida Administrative Code, to arrive at a weighted mean score. A candidate’s overall score on the Clinical Part was equal to the sum of his or her weighted mean scores for each section. At hearing, Siegel challenged just one clinical procedure, the Patient Amalgam Restoration.4 An amalgam restoration is a dental procedure that involves filling a cavity so that the affected tooth is restored to proper form and function. After this procedure, the treated tooth should closely resemble its original size and shape. Siegel’s raw scores on this procedure were very low. One of the examiners who testified at the hearing, a dentist with some 40 years’ experience, had awarded Siegel no points for the Patient Amalgam Restoration procedure because, after completion of the work, the restoration was fractured and the patient’s gingival margin was open. Another examiner, a dentist with 35 years of experience, explained at hearing that Siegel's work on the amalgam restoration was a failure; in this examiner’s opinion, the patient's tooth was actually in worse condition after Siegel had finished the procedure. The testimony of these examiners was credible and is accepted as being truthful and accurate. Accordingly, it is found that Siegel failed to perform the amalgam restoration with the minimum degree of skill and competence required for licensure as a dentist in this state. For his part, Siegel contended that one of the examiners (presumably the one who did not testify at hearing) had caused the restoration to fracture. Siegel based this theory on the account of his patient, Scott Graham, who testified that one of the examiners had "picked" at his tooth with a sharp instrument.5 (Mr. Graham is not a dentist.) Mr. Graham, however, had not complained about any alleged examiner misconduct at the time of the examination. Likewise, no examiner ever reported any such irregularity. In the absence of contemporaneous corroborating evidence, created before it became known that Siegel had failed the Exam, Mr. Graham’s testimony is simply not persuasive evidence of examiner misconduct. To be sure, it is theoretically possible that an examiner might damage a candidate’s work and then attempt to cover up his error by blaming the candidate. The evidence in this case, however, is not nearly sufficient to support such a finding. To underscore the point: Siegel’s theory is speculative at best. As for the remaining clinical procedures, while Siegel complained that his scores were not a reliable or accurate measure of his performance, he failed to introduce any persuasive evidence in support of this allegation. At bottom, the trier is not persuaded that the scores Siegel received were arbitrary, capricious, unfair, inconsistent, or otherwise objectionable. To the contrary, the evidence in the record demonstrates convincingly that the scores Siegel received on this Exam were reliable, correct, impartially rendered, and consistent with the grading practices used in scoring other candidates’ work.
Recommendation Based on the foregoing Findings of Fact and Conclusion of Law, it is RECOMMENDED that the Department advise the Board Of Dentistry to enter a Final Order (a) holding that Siegel's administrative challenge to the scores he received on the June 2001 Florida Dental Licensure Examination is without factual and legal merit and (b) declaring that Siegel failed said examination. DONE AND ENTERED this 19th day of February, 2002, in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida. JOHN G. VAN LANINGHAM Administrative Law Judge Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-3060 (850) 488-9675 SUNCOM 278-9675 Fax Filing (850) 921-6847 www.doah.state.fl.us Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 19th day of February, 2002.
Findings Of Fact At all times relevant hereto Lorenzo J. Anderson was licensed by the Department of Professional Regulation as a dentist in the State of Florida, having been issued license number DN0008311. On March 12, 1985, Deidre Tomasovic visited the dental office of Respondent for a dental checkup and necessary treatment. Upon arrival at the time scheduled for the appointment Dr. Anderson was not present and the appointment was rescheduled for 11:30 A.M. that same day. At this scheduled appointment Respondent took x-rays of Tomasovic's teeth for which Patricia Krajack (Tomasovic's mother) paid Respondent $65 by check. Respondent also noted work that needed to be done on several of Tomasovic's teeth and scheduled Tomasovic for an appointment to perform this work. No dental work was performed on Tomasovic. Tomasovic arrived for the scheduled appointment but Respondent was not present. Whereupon Ms. Krajack asked for the x-rays to take to another dentist to perform the work indicated on Tomasovic. She then learned that the x-rays had been submitted to Krajack's insurance carrier. Ms. Krajack contacted her insurance carrier to obtain the x-rays and learned that Respondent had submitted a bill for some $875 to the insurance company which included the x-rays for which Krajack had paid as well as work on teeth numbers 10, 11, 15 and 19. (Exhibit attached to Exhibit 3). This dental claim form indicated the dental work was performed on March 12, 25, and April 5, 1985. Subsequent to the discovery of the claim submitted for unperformed dental work and before any other dental work was performed on her, Tomasovic was examined by Dr. William E. Robinson, D.D.S., who was accepted as an expert in general dentistry in these proceedings. On the insurance claim form submitted Respondent showed that on tooth No. 19 he accomplished a post and core restoration, a root canal, and covered the tooth with a gold crown. Dr. Robinson's examination showed only a DOLI amalgam filling was needed for tooth No. 19. On the claim form Respondent showed he performed a composite restoration on tooth No. 10. Dr. Robinson's examination showed only the facial surface of this tooth had decay present. On the claim form Respondent showed that he accomplished a composite restoration of tooth No. 11 (mesial, facial and lingual) when only the mesial and facial required restoration. On the claim form Respondent showed he accomplished a mesial occlusal lingual alloy filling whereas Dr. Robinson found only occlusal decay in this tooth. None of the dental work included on the claim form submitted by Respondent to the insurance company (except the exam and x-rays) was performed on Tomasovic by Respondent. Subsequent to the filing of these charges, Respondent has filed for bankruptcy and indicated he desires to pursue a career other than dentistry (Exhibit 1).
Findings Of Fact Respondents Respondent, John A. Rowe, D.D.S., received his license to practice dentistry in the State of Florida on or about July 30, 1982 and has been so licensed continuing to the present under license #DN 009364. Since 1977, Dr. Rowe has been board-certified in oral and maxillofacial surgery and he practices in that specialty. Dr. Rowe's license to practice dentistry in the State of Tennessee was suspended on or about October 3, 1983, and was reinstated on or about September 28, 1984. He neglected to inform the State of Florida Board of Dentistry of that disciplinary action, although he did provide to the Board a copy of the civil complaint when he applied for licensure in Florida. In early 1985, Dr. Rowe moved his practice from Tennessee to central Florida and began working with Dr. Frank Murray. During the time that he treated the patients at issue in this proceeding, Dr. Rowe was a salaried employee and part owner of a clinic, Central Florida Dental Association, in Kissimmee, Florida. He now has his own practice in Kissimmee. Ralph E. Toombs, D.D.S., has at all times relevant to this proceeding been licensed to practice dentistry in the State of Florida under license #DN 007026. During the period in question, 1988, Dr. Toombs was an associate at Central Florida Dental Association. The Clinic and its Procedures During the relevant period, 1988-89, Central Florida Dental Association, P.A., was owned by a group of dentists who actively practiced at the clinic. Dr. Frank Murray was the majority shareholder and President. Dr. Rowe was a shareholder; Dr. Toombs owned no interest and was an associate. The dentist/owners were under employment contracts and received salaries. By all accounts, Dr. Murray made the operational decisions affecting the clinic and its patients. He admitted that shareholders' votes were based on percentage of ownership. (Tr.-p.114) Dr. Murray set the fees for billing and reviewed patients' files. The procedures for billing were computerized. Clerical staff in the insurance department filled out claim forms that were signed in blank by the dentists, or they signed the dentists' names to the forms. Around 1987 or 1988, Dr. Murray acquired computerized diagnostic equipment for the clinic. At first Dr. Toombs, who was trained and familiar with the equipment, performed the testing. Later, Dr. Murray hired Maggie Collins to operate the equipment. Maggie Collins administered the diagnostic tests to the patients at issue in this proceeding. By the time Dr. Rowe left Central Florida Dental Association in 1989, his relationship with Dr. Murray had deteriorated, giving rise to acrimonious litigation. Patient Records After Dr. Rowe left, he had no further access to, or control over the dental records for the eight patients at issue in this proceeding. These Central Florida Dental Association records were at all times maintained under the case, custody and control of Dr. Murray and his employees. When the records were subpoenaed by the Department of Professional Regulation, copies of the records were provided and the clinic employees certified that the records provided were complete. They were, in fact, not complete, as approximately 426 additional pages were included in the originals subpoenaed by counsel for Dr. Rowe, which pages had not been provided to DPR. Many of the documents not copied for DPR related to billings. In some instances Dr. Rowe's daily reports or consultations were missing from the original records and from the copies. And, in at least one case the original record contains an entirely different version of a specific radiology consultation conducted by Dr. Rowe on 5/3/89. (Compare Rowe Exhibit #2 with Pet. Exh. #5-1). No evidence was provided to conclusively explain the discrepancies, and the records themselves are an unreliable source of evidence with regard to the allegations that Dr. Toombs failed to maintain adequate records for patient J.T. Her file contains only one X-ray from Central Florida Dental Association, and no explanation of tests, diagnoses or the continuing contacts she remembers with Dr. Toombs. The patient specifically remembers more than one X-ray being done at the clinic. The Patients At various times during 1987, 1988 and 1989, Dr. Rowe was consulted by these patients: H.W., E.M., M.Z., R.P.V., H.D., R.M. and S.R. Each had been involved in an automobile accident or other traumatic injury and each complained of headaches, pain, dizziness, and other symptoms. After examination and throughout a course of testing and treatment, these various diagnoses of TMJ disorders by Dr. Rowe were commonly found in the above patients: trismus, closed lock, and mandibular atrophy. While other diagnoses were made in the individual cases, the evidence at hearing and Petitioner's proposed recommended order address only these. Patient J.T. first consulted Dr. Toombs in August 1988, after suffering headaches which she understood from her regular dentist and her physician might be caused by dental overbite. She had a friend who had some work done by Dr. Toombs, so she looked him up in the yellow pages under "orthodontics" and made an appointment. After testing and X-rays and a brief consultation with Dr. Rowe, J.T. understood that Drs. Toombs and Rowe were suggesting jaw joint replacement, removal of some teeth and braces. She was advised to get another opinion and she returned to a prior treating physician. She did not follow up with treatment from Dr. Toombs or Rowe. Testing In addition to being administered X-rays, the above patients were tested on myotronics equipment at Central Florida Dental Association by Maggie Collins, a trained diagnostic testing operator hired by Dr. Frank Murray. Myotronics is electronic equipment developed by a Seattle, Washington company over the last twenty years. The equipment is used in diagnosis and sometimes treatment of TMJ functions, and includes sonography, which records the vibration of sound; electromyography (EMG), which measures the electrical activities of the muscles of the face; and computerized mandibular scanning (CMS), which measures a range and velocity of mandibular movement, i.e., the opening and closing of the jaw. Myotronics can also include a device like a TENS unit used for pulsating. The machines produce printouts which are available for interpretation later by the appropriate professional. On each occasion of administering the myotronics tests to the patients at issue, Maggie Collins was alone, undirected by Dr. Toombs, Dr. Rowe or other clinic staff. She utilized testing procedures she had been taught and had used in her prior dental clinic experience and which she continues to use in the clinic where she now works. In some cases, Ms. Collins administered the same tests twice on a single visit. In those cases, after the first series, the patient was pulsated with a TENS before the series was administered again to measure the effectiveness of the pulsating. This is a standard practice. The full testing takes two and a half to three hours. Diagnoses The TMJ, or temporomandibular joint of the jaw, is between the temporo bone and the mandible. A disc is between the condyle (bone) and the fossa (socket). As the mouth is opened, the bone moves and the disc moves slightly at first, until the mouth is opened wider and the disc rotates around the axis of the condyle. According to Respondent Rowe's TMJ expert witness, John Biggs, D.D.S., and as evidenced by the testimony of all of the experts in this proceeding, terminology in TMJ is open to interpretation and there is not a complete union of agreement on every single thing in the field of TMJ. (tr.-p.790) "Closed lock" can legitimately mean that the disc is out of place and is not recaptured as the mouth is closed. The term, "closed lock", can also be applied to the mandible, meaning the jaw does not open normally because it meets resistance from muscle spasm or tissue impediment from the disc. An acute closed lock would impede the opening more than a chronic condition, as the mandible may, over time, stretch the ligaments. An acute closed lock could limit the mandibular opening to 21, 25 or even 27 mm; whereas a chronic closed lock might allow an opening of up to 40 mm, and sometimes more, according to Petitioner's expert, Dr. Abdel-Fattah (rebuttal deposition, 12/2/92, p.71). The patients' files in evidence reveal findings of limited mandibular openings from a variety of sources, including manual and electronic measurement. Those openings are well within the ranges described above for closed lock and most are within the "acute closed lock" range. Another term for "closed lock" is "anterior displacement of the disc without reduction". This means the disc is not recaptured on the condyle. When a sonogram reflects sounds or clicking in the joint, analysis of those sounds is helpful in diagnosing TMJ disorders. Literature appended by Petitioner to the rebuttal deposition of its expert supports Dr. Moretti's opinion that the presence of clicks can still mean that a closed lock exists. (Pet. #3 to deposition of Reba A.Abdel-Fattah, pp. 1 and 3, figure 5 Rowe Ex. #10, p.18) Trismus is more appropriately designated a symptom rather than a diagnosis. It means spasm of the muscles of mastication. The pain of the symptom often interferes with the opening of the mandible, and for that reason, trismus is sometimes used to also denote "limited opening". It is apparent from the patient records that Dr. Rowe used the term interchangeably, and for that reason, findings of trismus where a patient is able to open to 40 mm are not inconsistent. Moreover, trismus as a symptom may be more or less pronounced under a variety of circumstances on different occasions with the same patient. For example, the patient may experience severe trismus upon rising in the morning and find that it subsides later. Mandibular atrophy is indicated by bone loss. Reviewing the same X- rays for patient E.M., Petitioner's and Respondent Rowe's experts came to opposite conclusive opinions as to whether Dr. Rowe's diagnosis of this condition in E.M. was proper. Mandibular atrophy was also diagnosed in patient S.R., but Dr. Fattah did not find a problem with that diagnosis. Treatment Dr. Rowe's treatment of the patients in issue included closed manipulation and the insertion of orthodic splints. Both are noninvasive, conservative procedures. Petitioner alleges that closed manipulation was unnecessary in the absence of closed lock, and that the method of insertion of the splints by Dr. Rowe was improper. Closed manipulation of the mandible, sometimes called "closed reduction", is manual manipulation to attempt to recapture the disc. The procedure can be done several ways, one of which is to approach the patient from the back, place the hands on the mandible and relax the mandible to where it can be opened, moving the disc into place. The patient is in a supine, or reclined, position in the dental chair. Once the disc is manually repositioned, it is important to keep the patient from closing back on his posterior teeth and losing the disc again. To avoid this, an orthodic splint is inserted and fitted in the patient's mouth. Even when manipulation does not unlock the mandible, the practitioner might want to place the splint for support. The splint can be placed with the patient sitting erect or reclined. Dr. Rowe generally places the splint while the patient is reclined in the dental chair. Adjustments may be made after the splint is initially placed and the patient is sometimes seen twice on the same day or on a weekly basis. Because it is important for the patient to be relaxed, the supine or reclining position is preferred. Insurance Claims Insurance claims at Central Florida Dental Association were handled by clerical staff in a separate department. Claim forms were commonly signed by those staff for the treating dentist, but there is no evidence that the signatures were authorized for any specific claim. Another wholly inappropriate practice at the clinic was to have the dentists sign blank forms to be filled out later. Dr. Rowe testified that Dr. Murray required that they do this, and that he did sign blank forms. Those forms include this printed statement over the signature line: NOTICE: Under penalty of perjury, I declare that I have read the foregoing, that the facts alleged are true, to the best of my knowledge and belief, and that the treatment and services rendered were reasonable and necessary with respect to the bodily injury sustained. (Pet. Ex. 12) There is no evidence that Dr. Rowe or Dr. Toombs filled out the claim forms in issue, or were involved in the ultimate decisions as to how much and when to bill an insurance company. In several instances, the forms reflect that tests were billed twice on the same day. As found above, tests were commonly administered twice in one day, for valid reasons. Whether the billing for such was proper was simply not addressed by any competent testimony in this proceeding. Patients' insurance companies were also billed for TENS units. H.W. was given this equipment at the clinic and he testified that he still has it. There is no evidence that any billing for TENS units was fraudulent or improper. Advertising In 1988, the Osceola County telephone directory Yellow Pages listed Dr. Toombs under "Dentists-Orthodontics". There is no evidence that anyone other than Dr. Murray was involved with the placement of that listing. Dr. Toombs is a general dentist who practices orthodontics. He is a member of various orthodontic societies. Petitioner's expert witness, Dr. Lilly, confirmed that a general practitioner of dentistry may practice some orthodontics. There is no evidence that Dr. Toombs has held himself out or limited his practice to being an orthodontist. Weighing the Evidence and Summary of Findings Competent reasonable experts testified on behalf of both Petitioner and Respondent Rowe. It is clear that, as Dr. Biggs observed, terminology in the field of TMJ is not as precise and uniform as Dr. Fattah would suggest. Some of the differences in opinion are attributed to that imprecision, and perhaps to quirks in Dr. Rowe's narratives which portray a surgical setting for a nonsurgical procedure, for example, "draping the patient" or "surgical splint". Dr. Rowe, as an oral surgeon, nonetheless, proceeded reasonably in his sequence of diagnosis and treatment; that is, he attempted conservative, noninvasive modalities before going to more invasive procedures such as arthoscopy and surgery. Other differences in opinion and in the way the computerized test results are interpreted are more difficult to resolve. Dr. Rowe contends that Dr. Fattah misread the printed data, confusing vertical with horizontal readings. Dr. Fattah uses myotronic equipment, but not the older model that was used for the tests at issue. The greater weight of evidence supports Respondent Rowe's diagnoses of the patients at issue. Since the allegations of inappropriate and unnecessary treatment are based on allegations of misdiagnosis, Petitioner's proof fails here as well. The further testing, the closed manipulation and insertion of the splints were appropriate follow up for the findings of TMJ disorders by Dr. Rowe. With one exception, it was the insurance companies and not the patients who complained. The records from Central Florida Dental Association reflect substantial billings and insurance form submittals for Dr. Rowe's and Dr. Toombs' patients, but no evidence of these Respondents' responsibility or involvement in the process. The clinic functions were performed in discrete departments under the overall management and control of Dr. Murray. There was no evidence that either Dr. Rowe or Dr. Toombs exercised influence over any patient so as to exploit the patient for personal financial gain.
Recommendation Based on the foregoing, it is, hereby, RECOMMENDED: That Respondent Rowe be found guilty of violating Section 466.028(1)(b), (1983), and a fine of $250.00 be imposed; and that the remaining charges as to Respondents Rowe and Toombs be dismissed. DONE AND RECOMMENDED this 2nd day of April, 1993, in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida. MARY CLARK Hearing Officer Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-1550 (904) 488-9675 Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 2nd day of April, 1993. APPENDIX TO RECOMMENDED ORDER, CASE NOS. 91-3213, 91-6022 AND 91-5362 The following constitute specific rulings on the findings of fact proposed by the parties. Adopted in paragraph 1. 2.-3. Adopted in paragraph 2. 4. Rejected as unnecessary. The statute is addressed in the Conclusions of Law. 5.-6. Adopted in summary in paragraph 13. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. Adopted in summary in paragraphs 16 and 26. 9.-13. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. 14.-15. Adopted in summary in paragraph 13. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. Adopted in summary in paragraphs 16 and 26. 18.-23. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. 24.-25. Adopted in summary in paragraph 13. 26. Adopted in summary in paragraphs 16 and 26. 27.-30. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. 31. Adopted in paragraph 27. The referenced exhibit #33 is Dr. Lilly's resume and does not support the proposed finding. 32.-34. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. 35.-36. Adopted in summary in paragraph 13. 37. Adopted in summary in paragraphs 16 and 26. 38.-42. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. 43.-44. Adopted in summary in paragraph 13. 45. Adopted in summary in paragraphs 16 and 26. 46.-49. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. 50.-51. Adopted in summary in paragraph 13. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. Adopted in summary in paragraphs 16 and 26. 54.-58. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. The reference to exhibit #33 is incorrect. 59.-60. Adopted in summary in paragraph 13. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. Adopted in summary in paragraphs 16 and 26. 63.-67. Rejected as contrary to the weight of evidence. 68. Adopted in paragraph 4. 69.-70. Adopted in paragraph 14. Adopted in part in paragraph 34, otherwise rejected as to Respondent's involvement in the advertisement. Adopted in paragraph 35. 73.-74. Rejected as unnecessary. 75.-77. Rejected as unnecessary or unsupported by competent evidence as the absence of these records does not support the finding of a violation under the circumstances. Findings Proposed by Respondent Rowe Adopted in paragraph 1. Adopted in paragraph 3. 3.-4. Adopted in paragraph 9. 5.-7. Adopted in paragraph 10. 8.-9. Adopted in paragraph 11. Adopted in paragraph 10. Rejected. The testimony of J.T. is inconclusive in this regard. Adopted in paragraph 8. Rejected as unnecessary. Rejected as overbroad. The records received were reliable for a limited purpose. 15.-16. Rejected as unnecessary. Rejected as immaterial. Respondent admitted the violation. Adopted in part in paragraph 2, otherwise rejected as immaterial (see paragraph 17, above) Adopted in paragraph 32, in substance. Adopted in substance in paragraph 6. Rejected as unnecessary. Rejected in part as unsubstantiated by the record (as to whether Rowe received any benefit other than salary), otherwise adopted in paragraph 6. 23.-24. Adopted in paragraph 6. 25. Adopted in paragraph 41. 26.-27. Adopted in paragraph 37. Adopted in paragraph 41. Adopted in paragraph 29. Adopted in substance in paragraph 21. Adopted in paragraph 23. Adopted in paragraph 20. Adopted in paragraph 24. 34.-37. Rejected as unsupported by conclusive evidence. The witness was at times confused in his haste. He does not know this particular equipment but it is not clear from the record that he was reading the data wrong. Adopted in paragraph 24. Adopted in paragraph 23. Adopted in paragraphs 37 and 38. Adopted in paragraph 33. Rejected in part, adopted in part (see conclusions of law). Finding of Fact Recommended by Respondent Toombs Rejected as unnecessary. Adopted in paragraph 4. Adopted in paragraph 14. 4.-5. Rejected as unnecessary. Adopted in paragraph 36. Adopted in paragraph 34. Adopted in paragraph 35. 9.-11. Rejected as unnecessary. 12. Adopted in paragraph 5. 13.-18. Rejected as unnecessary. 19. Adopted in paragraph 12. 20.-26. Rejected as unnecessary. 27. Adopted in paragraph 41. COPIES FURNISHED: William Buckhalt, Executive Director Dept. of Professional Regulation 1940 N. Monroe St., Ste. 60 Tallahassee, FL 32399-0792 Jack McRay, General Counsel Dept. of Professional Regulation 1940 N. Monroe St., Ste. 60 Tallahassee, FL 32399-0792 Albert Peacock, Sr. Atty. Dept. of Professional Regulation 1940 N. Monroe St., Ste. 60 Tallahassee, FL 32399-0792 Kenneth Brooten, Jr. 660 W. Fairbanks Avenue Winter Park, FL 32789 Ronald Hand 241 E. Ruby Ave., Ste. A Kissimmee, FL 34741
Findings Of Fact At all times pertinent to this hearing, Petitioner held an active license as a dentist (No. 4385) in the State of Florida. On July 29, 1981, Respondent performed a difficult maxillary hyperplastic surgery on Mrs. Jeanette Remington which required several follow-up visits and treatment. Sometime after the surgery, Mrs. Remington made a trip to Bolivia. Upon her return in either September or October, 1981, she called Respondent regarding her treatment. He felt it was necessary for her to come to his office for further examination and treatment. However, because she was suffering from acute diarrhea, she was unable to leave the house. As a result, Respondent prescribed paregoric for her to control the diarrhea so that she could leave her home to come to his office for required dental examination and treatment. Paregoric, as a derivative of opium, is a controlled substance listed in Chapter 893, Florida Statutes (1979 and 1981). As a result, a prescription was required to obtain it. It is not generally used in the practice of dentistry. Dr. Edgar Allen Cosby, a dentist since 1950 and a former chairman of the Florida Board of Dentistry in 1979, testified, and I so find, that often a dentist will treat minor, unrelated medical problems for the purpose of getting a patient into the office. It is only recently that prescription of any drug by a licensed dentist was limited. Prior to that time, a dentist could prescribe any drug provided his license and Drug Enforcement Agency certificate were current. In November, 1981, Dr. Peters called in a prescription for Tylenol IV for Fred Remington to Sharon S. MacMahon, a registered pharmacist at the Gainesville Pic 'N Save drugstore. Ms. MacMahon filled the prescription, which had a refill authorization on it. Mr. Remington went back two days later and requested a refill. Since Ms. MacMahon felt this was too soon for a refill, she refused to do so and attempted, unsuccessfully, to reach Respondent. The following day, when Mr. Remington came back, she was able to contact Respondent, who approved the prescription. When she asked Respondent what the prescription was for, he indicated it was for a head injury resulting from a fall. Mr. Remington, on the other hand, indicated to Ms. Collins, the investigator, the prescription was for pain resulting from an auto injury. Regardless of which one was accurate, neither relates to the practice of dentistry. Tylenol IV is a derivative of codeine and is designated as a controlled substance in Chapter 893, Florida Statutes (1979 and 1981). At some time during Respondent's first year of dental practice (in 1971 or 1972), Respondent prescribed amphetamines on one occasion to a student at the University of Florida who was studying for examinations. The amphetamine was in the form of Dexedrine, the trade name for dextroamphetamine, and is currently designated as a Schedule II controlled substance in Chapter 893, Florida Statutes (1979 and 1981). Amphetamines, in 1971, were considered as a "central nervous system stimulant," as defined in Section 404.01, Florida Statutes (1971), and a prescription was required to obtain them. Ms. MacMahon has never filled a prescription for amphetamines by Respondent during her 8 1/2 years as a pharmacist. An audit of 15 to 20 pharmacies in the Gainesville area conducted by investigators for the Petitioner failed to reveal any prescriptions for amphetamines written by the Respondent during the two or more years records were kept. At some point, well prior to March, 1982, Respondent administered nitrous oxide gas to himself for purposes not related to the practice of dentistry. Respondent was divorced in 1976 and utilized the gas to relax himself, not while engaged in practice, as a result of the stress involved with his divorce. Nitrous oxide is a gas used in the practice of dentistry to relax or sedate patients prior to dental treatment. It is a form of anesthetic. Respondent's nitrous oxide equipment has been inoperative for several years because the storage tanks were stolen and not replaced. This theft was reported to the police. Respondent is considered by Petitioner's investigator and by other practitioners to be very conservative in his prescription of drugs. He does not prescribe large quantities of Schedule II drugs.
Recommendation Based upon the foregoing, it is RECOMMENDED: That Counts I and III be dismissed for lack of evidence and that Respondent be assessed an administrative fine of $1,000. RECOMMENDED this 8th day of July, 1983, in Tallahassee, Florida. ARNOLD H. POLLOCK, Hearing Officer Division of Administrative Hearings The Oakland Building 2009 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32301 (904) 488-9675 Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 8th day of July, 1983. COPIES FURNISHED: Julie Gallagher, Esquire Department of Professional Regulation 130 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, Florida 32301 Kenneth E. Brooten, Jr., Esquire Post Office Box 788 Gainesville, Florida 32602 Mr. Fred Roche, Secretary Department of Professional Regulation 130 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, Florida 32301 Mr. Fred Varn Executive Director Board of Dentistry Department of Professional Regulation 130 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, Florida 32301 ================================================================= AGENCY FINAL ORDER ================================================================= STATE OF FLORIDA DEPARTMENT OF PROFESSIONAL REGULATION BOARD OF DENTISTRY DEPARTMENT OF PROFESSIONAL REGULATION, Petitioner, CASE NOS. 0017971 (DPR) v. 82-2128 (DOAH) LICENSE NO. DN 0004385 PAUL E. PETERS, JR., D.D.S., Respondent. /
The Issue The issue for consideration in this case is whether Petitioner should be awarded a passing grade on the clinical portion of the dental licensing examination given on December 12 through 14, 1996.
Findings Of Fact At all times pertinent to the issues herein, the Board of Dentistry was responsible for the licensing of dentists in this state and the regulation of the dental profession. Petitioner is a graduate of the University of Florida School of Dentistry and was eligible to sit for the examination for licensure as a dentist in Florida. Petitioner previously has taken and passed the written portion of the dental examination. He has taken the clinical portion of the examination twice and has received a failing grade each time. He is eligible to take the clinical portion alone for a third time, but must do so within a period of 13 months of taking it the second time or must take both the written and oral portions again. Dr. Scheutz first took the examination in June 1996. He received a passing grade in each of those examination portions which dealt with Florida laws and rules and with oral diagnosis. However, he received a grade of 2.31 on the clinical examination portion of the examination, and a passing grade was 3.0. Thereafter, in December 1996 he again took the clinical portion and this time received a grade of 2.71, still below the 3.0 passing grade. Dr. Theodor Simkin is a licensed dentist and consultant to the Board of Dentistry, who has been in the private practice of dentistry since 1950 and in Florida since 1975. He has been involved in the development, administration, and grading of the dental examination in Florida since 1979 and was a supervisor for the December 1996 examination. He is familiar with the standards applied in the clinical portion of the examination and how the examination is given and graded. Petitioner has challenged the grade he received on five separate procedures he performed during the December 1996 examination. The procedures chosen for accomplishment during the examination are not unusual procedures, but are common problems seen on a routine basis by a practicing dentist. Dr. Simkin reviewed the mannequin on which Petitioner did his work and which he presented to the examiners for grading. One of the grades challenged related to a "composite restoration" (Clinical D) for which Petitioner received a grade of 0. In this procedure the candidate is presented with a tooth on a mannequin. The candidate is instructed to cut off a corner of the tooth and then restore that corner with an amalgam restoration. The examiners are not present when the procedure is accomplished, but grade the procedure after completion. Instruction on the procedure is given to the candidate by a monitor who is present in the room but who does not grade the work done. The examination process is accomplished using the candidate number, not the candidate name, so that examiners do not know whose work at which they are looking. Once the procedure is done by the candidate, the mold is packed in the candidate's presence and is then held in the custody of the Board of Dentistry until examined independently by each of three examiners. Once graded, it is then shipped to Tallahassee and kept in a vault until needed, as here, for review by Dr. Simkin and others. Ordinarily, even if dropped, a model will not break. In the instant case, Petitioner performed the procedure on an upper right central incisor. The right corner of the tooth, approximately one-third of the tooth, was cut off and the candidate was instructed to rebuild it with a composite material. When the examiners evaluated Petitioner's work, they found that the filling was not bonded to the tooth and was loose. The loose restoration would be useless to the patient, whereas a properly done restoration should last for at least several years. On a human, the stresses applied to a tooth repair are significant, and the repair must be sufficient to withstand them. Notwithstanding Petitioner's claim that the tooth used was an artificial tooth to which the filling material does not easily bond, Dr. Simkin asserts that the bonding which occurs with a plastic tooth is different from that which occurs in a real tooth but the material can bond to the plastic tooth. He knows of no other complaints by other candidates at this examination of not being able to complete the restoration because the materials would not bond. Petitioner admits that when he did the procedure during the June 1996 examination, the tooth bonded correctly. In light of all the evidence regarding this point, it is found that Petitioner's claim is without merit. Petitioner also challenges his score of 2.0 received for his work on an "amalgam cavity preparation" (Clinical B). This composite score was based on a 2.0 awarded by each of the three examiners. An amalgam preparation is what is done to the tooth to get it ready for filling. In this case, an actual patient, supplied by the examines, had a cavity which was reviewed by the examiners. Once the patient was accepted by the examiners, the candidate then cleaned out the cavity and got it ready for filling. Dr. Simkin's review of the documentation prepared in regard to this candidate's performance of this procedure, in his opinion, supports the grades given by the examiners. Here, Petitioner sent the examiners a note as to what he proposed to do with his patient. Petitioner sought to deviate from a normal preparation due to the location of the caries, and the monitor agreed, as did the examiners. Thereafter, the candidate did the procedure. All three examiners graded his work against his proposal and gave him a failing grade. The examiners determined that his work on this patient merited only a grade of 2.0 because, according to two examiners, the margin of the filling was not separated from the next tooth as required. As to the "posterior endodonture procedure" (Clinical M), Petitioner received an overall score of 1.3. In this procedure, the candidate is required to bring in an extracted tooth which is mounted in an acrylic block. The candidate is to remove the nerve and diseased tissue, clean the cavity, file it, fill the canals, and seal the tooth. This is known as a root canal. In grading a candidate's work, the examiners look to see that the canal is properly cleaned out, is filled properly and sealed with a surface that is slightly shorter than the apex (highest point) of the tooth. On the x-ray taken of Petitioner's sample, it is obvious, according to Dr. Simkin, that one canal is at or short of the apex, but the other is long, and this is considered unacceptable treatment. Even Petitioner agrees. Petitioner received grades of 3.0, 2.0 and 1.0 for an overall failing grade of 2.0 on the "prep. cast restoration" (Clinical F). In this instance, the procedure called for the candidate to install a gold onlay. Normally the surface to which the onlay is to be placed is reduced slightly below the abutting face. Here, though one side was acceptable, Petitioner reduced too much on the other side without reason. Petitioner claims, however, that only one of the three examiners indicated excessive reduction. That determination calls for a very subjective opinion. He cannot understand how the propriety of reduction can be determined without looking into the mouth of a patient. However, Petitioner has presented no evidence in support of his opinion. The fifth challenge relates to the grade Petitioner received in the "pin amalgam pre. procedure" (Clinical G). This involves a situation where one cusp has been removed, and in order to hold a restoration, Repin must be placed in the solid portion of the tooth. The examiners determined that Petitioner's occlusal was too shallow at 1 mm, when it should have gone down 1~ to 2 mm. This, the examiners considered, would not give enough strength to hold the amalgam properly without risk of fracture. Dr. Simkins is of the opinion that Petitioner was subjected to a standardized test which was graded fairly. It would so appear and Petitioner introduced no evidence to the contrary. Ms. Carnes, a psychometrician and an expert in testing and test development who trains examiners to ensure they are consistent in their evaluations, agrees with Dr. Simkins' appraisal. The Department of Business and Professional Regulation tries to insure through its standardization efforts that the approach to grading of each examiner is consistent and that all examiners are grading with the same set of criteria. This was done in preparation for the December 1996 dental examination and a check done after the examination showed it was graded this way. Petitioner cites by way of explanation, if not excuse, that during his senior year in dental school, he was badly injured in an automobile accident and required stitches and several weeks of physical therapy for, among other injuries, a herniated disc. When he recovered sufficiently, he finished his course work and sat for the dental examination in June 1996, passing two of three sections, but not the clinical portion. Dr. Scheutz took the clinical portion of the examination again in December 1996 and again failed to earn a passing score. In his opinion, his knowledge has improved over time, but his procedural skills have diminished over the months due to his injuries. He contends he has work in dentistry he can do which will make accommodations for his physical condition, but does not believe he should have to wait another six months to take the examination again, especially since he would have to again take the entire examination, including those portions he has already passed since at that time more than 13 months from his last examination would have passed. Petitioner contends the clinical testing portion of the examination is too subjective to be valid. He wants to close this chapter in his life, but does not want to deal any more with the Board.
Recommendation Based on the foregoing Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law, it is recommended that the Board of Dentistry enter a Final Order denying Petitioner's challenge and sustaining the award of a failing grade on the clinical portion of the dental examination taken by the Petitioner on December 12 through 14, 1996. DONE AND ENTERED this 27th day of June, 1997, in Tallahassee, Leon County, Florida. ARNOLD H. POLLOCK Administrative Law Judge Division of Administrative Hearings The DeSoto Building 1230 Apalachee Parkway Tallahassee, Florida 32399-3060 (904) 488-9675 SUNCOM 278-9675 Fax Filing (904) 921-6847 Filed with the Clerk of the Division of Administrative Hearings this 27th day of June, 1997. COPIES FURNISHED: Dr. Eric J. Scheutz, pro se 332 Whispering Oaks Court Sarasota, Florida 34232 Karel Baarelag, Esquire Agency for Health Care Administration 2295 Victoria Avenue Fort Myers, Florida 33906-0127 Jerome W. Hoffman, General Counsel Agency for Health Care Administration 2727 Mahan Drive Tallahassee, Florida 32309 William Buckhalt, Executive Director Board of Dentistry 1940 North Monroe Street Tallahassee, Florida 32399-0792
