In 2001 I ped guilty ( advise of my attorney), to a felony charge of attempting to obtain a controlled substance by fraudulent prescriptions, with another female who had attempting and possesion of the same. Last December, a policeman asked me questions about a fake prescription, with a controlled sub.on it, that had my name and my insurance card was used. In my statement, I said my prescriptions for that medication were given to me by the doctor or through the mail. I denied any involvement, and had no idea what he was talking about.Three days ago I received a letter from a bailbondsman saying a warrant was issued for me on 7/10/10. I called the bondsman and asked what this was about. He said it was a class D felony charge, and I should turn myself in.I won't have the money for the bondsman until September. Hopefully, I won't get picked up.How can someone charge me for something I did not do? Apparently my name and insurance card was used for more than one of these fake prescriptions and my doctor's name and information was on them too. She knows I am innocent. I am a single mom of an eight year old. I am actively involved with her at home and at her school. I don't have time to do whatever they think I did.How do these warrants work. Will I be able to wait until Sept.to turn myself in? Also, why should I turn myself in for something I did not do? Please advise.
Thank you,
djackson
We have a court order that states no paramours are allowed to spend the night while the kids are with either of us. I have remarried so it doesn't apply to me. However, my ex-husband has not. I just found out the girlfriend spent the night. Along with this he is not paying his portion of the medical bills or his portion of school expenses. I will be filing the second show cause for medical bills. The first show cause for school expenses as well as a show cause for the paramour spending the night.
My question is, I'm sure the courts will just make him pay his portion of the bills but what do they normally do about the paramour?
Withheld pay
I worked for a small pharmaceutical company for a year and one day had to quit, without giving a 2 week notice. Well the owner told me since I quit without giving notice I was not entitled to my last commission check for time and sales earned. I never signed anything agreeing to this when i was hired nor was I informed of any such rule upon my employment. The owner is mad and making it up as he goes along. Am I right in thinking he CANNOT legally withhold my pay?
