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Asked in NJ May 18, 2022 ,  0 answers Visitors: 1
I divorced my EX 3 years ago. I was just issued a summons that the house we lived in is in foreclosure. In the divorce decree it states she gets the house and takes on the mortgage. She stopped paying the mortgage in April of 2014. Am I liable? What is my next step?
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2 Answers

Anonymous
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Posted on / Jan. 05, 2015 18:13:00

Well what happened here is that your prior lawyer may have dropped the ball. The agreement may say that she has to pay the mortgage but it in and of itself does not force her to pay it. You should have had a provision in there where she provides proof of payment. But even before that, you should have never agreed to this in the first place to avoid this. Now that we have to deal with this, there are a number of things we have to deal with her. Call me at 1-855-9-JEFLAW to discuss.

Anonymous
Reply

Posted on / Jan. 05, 2015 18:13:00

Well what happened here is that your prior lawyer may have dropped the ball. The agreement may say that she has to pay the mortgage but it in and of itself does not force her to pay it. You should have had a provision in there where she provides proof of payment. But even before that, you should have never agreed to this in the first place to avoid this. Now that we have to deal with this, there are a number of things we have to deal with her. Call me at 1-855-9-JEFLAW to discuss.

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