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Asked in VA May 21, 2022 ,  0 answers

If a contract says a party must be notified of something within 30 days, does that mean the party must receive the notification within 30 days? Or does it mean the notification must be sent within that time? Or, postmarked?

If it is sent and dated on the 30th day, postmarked on the 31st, and received on the 33rd, have they violated those terms?

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1 Answers

Anonymous
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Posted on / Oct. 25, 2009 14:16:00

Probably, the party needs to have actually received it for the sender to be in full compliance, technically speaking.

No, probably not, in any material or substantive sense(in my opinion).

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