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Asked in MD May 26, 2022 ,  0 answers Visitors: 7

Divorce

I was married when we bought our house, but the house is only in my name. Does this mean that the house is all mines

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2 Answers

Anonymous
Reply

Posted on / Dec. 08, 2007 12:03:00

Re: Divorce

The titling of a house is not determinative of ownership and, if it was purchased during the marriage from marital funds he will have an equitable interest. If you purchased it using non-marital money (e.g., inherited money) and he did not contribute to any mortgage or fix-up of the house, and you continued to pay any mortgage using non-marital funds, it may be possible to protect it. Equitable interest is not necessarily 50/50, by the way ... it would require an examination of the contributions of each party to the property (monetary and non-monetary). If you need an attorney to represent you in the divorce, we can explain more at the initial consultation. Good luck!

Anonymous
Reply

Posted on / Dec. 08, 2007 12:03:00

Re: Divorce

The titling of a house is not determinative of ownership and, if it was purchased during the marriage from marital funds he will have an equitable interest. If you purchased it using non-marital money (e.g., inherited money) and he did not contribute to any mortgage or fix-up of the house, and you continued to pay any mortgage using non-marital funds, it may be possible to protect it. Equitable interest is not necessarily 50/50, by the way ... it would require an examination of the contributions of each party to the property (monetary and non-monetary). If you need an attorney to represent you in the divorce, we can explain more at the initial consultation. Good luck!

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