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Asked in CA May 26, 2022 ,  0 answers Visitors: 3

Fmla

I had a work note provided by my family doctor for 3 days for a sore knee. I went back to work without needing any further sick leave for this. I have subsequently rec'd a letter from my employer stating they've started a FMLA request FOR me regarding medical leave. Am I obligated to now use this date for FMLA i.e. does my year start now or does it start when (if) I actually need the leave for a chronic issue later this year. Can my employer start this without my request. My understanding is that it is my RIGHT to request it, not my employer's right. Ultimately, is it legal for my employer to initiate a request for FMLA in my name without my permission?

Data From  LAWGURU_Question

1 Answers

Anonymous
Reply

Posted on / Aug. 30, 2008 14:37:00

Re: Fmla

What did your note from your family doctor actually say?

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