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Asked in TX May 26, 2022 ,  0 answers

Medical Bills

If it is stated in the decree that medical bills for the kids are to be split 50/50, is the Mom allowed to tell the doctor to send the bill to the Dad? The Dad pays the Mom directly, so she should be responsible for the bill right? Otherwise the Dad would pay and she ay not pay her half and then it becomes the Dad's credit issue.

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1 Answers

Anonymous
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Posted on / Jan. 09, 2008 21:11:00

Re: Medical Bills

Actually, this question is putting the decree under a microscope. Mom and Dad are going to have to come to agreement on various issues like this, or else they will both be in court constantly, paying ALOT of legal fees, getting the decree clarified.

My experience is that judges get easily exasperated with this type of proceeding, and the rulings rarely please anyone.

I might suggest that Mom pay her half of the bill at the doctor, and the doctor send the bill to Dad? Or Dad agree to pay his half immediately when faxed the bill? Surely there is an amicable resolution to this, since there are bound to be many more of these kinds of issues to deal with until the kids are 18.

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